Showing posts with label Uttar Pradesh P.C.S. Exams. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Uttar Pradesh P.C.S. Exams. Show all posts

UP PCS Combined Lower Subordinate (Pre) Exam, 2004

U.P. PCS Combined Lower Subordinate (Pre.) Exam., 2004
Economics : Solved Paper
(Held on 25-5-2008)

1. Which of the following is a measure of quantitative credit control ?
(A) Moral suasion
(B) Bank rate
(C) Regulation of consumer credit
(D) Fixation of margin requirements on specific securities

2. On whose recommendation, S.B.I. was established ?
(A) Gorewala Committee
(B) Niyogi Committee
(C) Lakdawala Committee
(D) V. K. R. V. Rao Committee

3. Who has given the equation ?
P = kR/M {C + R (1 – C)} (Symbols have usual meanings)
(A) Pigou
(B) Keynes
(C) Fischer
(D) Robertson

4. R.B.I. was nationalised in the year—
(A) 1935
(B) 1947
(C) 1949
(D) 1951

5. Which of the following is not a flow concept ?
(A) Wages
(B) Wealth
(C) Income
(D) Dividend

6. Which pair of economists have considered P as representing price level in giving the cash balances equation ?
(A) Pigou and Robertson
(B) Marshall and Robertson
(C) Marshall and Pigou
(D) Pigou and Keynes

7. Of the following, which is not a source of public revenue ?
(A) Public borrowing
(B) Taxes
(C) Subsidies
(D) Surpluses of public undertakings

8. Tax is added to price when—
(A) Demand is perfectly elastic
(B) Demand is highly inelastic
(C) Supply is highly elastic
(D) Supply is perfectly elastic

9. Fiscal Deficit is equal to—
(A) Current Income – Current Expenditure
(B) Capital Receipts – Capital Payments
(C) Total Income – Total Expenditure
(D) Current Income – (Current Expenditure + Capital Expenditure)

10. An indirect tax is levied on—
(A) Commodities
(B) Services
(C) Imported goods
(D) All of the above

11. When a Government spends more than its revenue collection, such excess is referred to as—
(A) Budget deficit
(B) Fiscal deficit
(C) Revenue deficit
(D) Primary deficit

12. Which of the following fulfills the criterion of horizontal and vertical equity in taxation ?
(A) Expediency Approach
(B) Ability-to-pay Approach
(C) Benefit Approach
(D) Socio-Political Approach

13. Which of the following measures is not included in monetary measures used for removing the imbalances in balance of payment ?
(A) Deflation
(B) Restrictions on exports
(C) Exchange control
(D) Devaluation

14. Devaluation will help in improving the balances of payments of a country if the sum of the elasticity of demand for imports and exports is—
(A) Zero
(B) Equal to one
(C) Less than one
(D) More than one

15. Which of the following items is not included in a country’s balance of payments ?
(A) Import and export duties
(B) Shipping servies
(C) Interest received from abroad
(D) Tourists’ expenditure

16. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Absolute Advantage
(b) Employment Multiplier
(c) Comparative Cost Theory
List-II
1. Keynes
2. Adam Smith
3. Kahn
4. Ricardo
Codes :
(a) (b) (c)
(A) 1 3 2
(B) 2 1 4
(C) 2 3 4
(D) 4 1 2

17. Free international trade leads to equalisation of—
(A) Prices in both the countries
(B) Commodities of both the countries
(C) International price with domestic price
(D) None of the above

18. The concept of ‘Offer Curves’ has been given by—
(A) Marshall – Edgeworth
(B) H. Singer
(C) W. A. Lewis
(D) A. Young

19. Trade can arise between the countries because of differences in—
(A) Technology
(B) Factor Endorsement
(C) Tastes
(D) All of the above

20. A country is advised to devalue its currency only when its exports face—
(A) Unit elasticity of demand
(B) Inelastic demand in foreign markets
(C) Elastic demand in foreign markets
(D) Perfectly inelastic demand

21. Which of the following represents the correct combination of sexratio in India in 1951 and 2001 ?
(A) 941, 933
(B) 946, 933
(C) 946, 927
(D) 972, 933

22. The proportion of rainfed agriculture to the net sown area in India is about—
(A) 45 per cent
(B) 75 per cent
(C) 50 per cent
(D) 60 per cent

23. As per the N.S.S. 61st round, poverty ratio in India for the year 2004-05 is estimated at—
(A) 23•6 per cent
(B) 32•4 per cent
(C) 27•5 per cent
(D) 16•0 per cent

24. The recommendations of the 12th Finance Commission covers the period—
(A) 2007–12
(B) 2006–11
(C) 2005–10
(D) 2004–09

25. The problem of unemployment in rural areas is taken care of by—
(A) National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme
(B) Sampoorna Gramin Rozgar Yojana
(C) Swarnjayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana
(D) All of the above

26. Which one of the following method is not used by N.S.S.O. for the measurement of unemployment in India ?
(A) Current Monthly Status
(B) Current Weekly Status
(C) Current Daily Status
(D) Usual Principal Status

27. Rate of increase in India’s national income (at 1993-94 prices) has been highest during—
(A) Sixth Five Year Plan
(B) Seventh Five Year Plan
(C) Eighth Five Year Plan
(D) Ninth Five Year Plan

28. Assertion (A) : Buoyancy has been witnessed in tax receipts from direct taxes in the past few years.
Reason (R) : Government has taken several measures in the area of direct taxes.
Out of the above—
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

29. Which Five Year Plan of India was terminated one year before the time schedule ?
(A) Third
(B) Fourth
(C) Fifth
(D) Sixth

30. The meaning of the ‘core sector’ in planning is—
(A) Agriculture
(B) Selected basic industries
(C) Defence industries
(D) Iron and Steel industries

31. Who gains in inflation ?
(A) Saver
(B) Creditor
(C) Debtor
(D) Pension-holder

32. India’s imports and exports in 2005-06 were highest with—
(A) Asia and Oceania
(B) America
(C) Russia
(D) West Europe

33. Consumer’s surplus is maximum for which types of commodities ?
(A) Luxury goods
(B) Comforts goods
(C) Necessities
(D) Equal for all types of goods

34. A firm may be considered to be of optimum size when—
(A) Its fixed and average costs are equal
(B) Its average cost is at a minimum
(C) Its total cost and total revenue curve coincide
(D) It is faced with a horizontal demand curve

35. The Slustky equation shows—
(A) Change in price alters consumers’ expenditure pattern
(B) Change in income alters consumer’s expenditure pattern
(C) Change in price as well as income alter consumers’ expenditure pattern
(D) Demographic change alters consumers’ expenditure pattern

36. When the price of an ‘inferior goods’ declines—
(A) Income effect is negative while substitution effect is positive
(B) Income effect is positive while substitution effect is negative
(C) Both income and substitution effects are negative
(D) Both income and substitution effect are positive

37. Under imperfect competition price in the long run is—
(A) Greater than the average cost
(B) Equal to the average cost
(C) Less than the average cost
(D) Equal to the marginal cost

38. Which of the following is not a U-shaped curve ?
(A) AFC curve
(B) AVC curve
(C) AC curve
(D) MC curve

39. The name of J. S. Mill is associated with which of the following theory of wages ?
(A) Wage Fund Theory
(B) Iron Law of Wages
(C) Subsistence Theory
(D) Marginal Productivity Theory

40. If the price elasticity of demand is 0•5, a 10 per cent increase in price leads to—
(A) 50 per cent decrease in demand
(B) 5 per cent decrease in demand
(C) 20 per cent decrease in demand
(D) 5 per cent increase in income

41. A consumer is in equilibrium only when—
(A) Indifference curve is convex to the origin
(B) Indifference curve is a straight line
(C) Indifference curve is tangent to the price line
(D) None of the above

42. Which of the following conditions is not correct under monopolistic competition ?
(A) Large number of sellers
(B) Differentiated product
(C) Effective barriers against the entry of firms
(D) Non-price competition

43. Of the following, which one is known as Gossen’s Second Law ?
(A) The law of diminishing marginal utility
(B) Engel’s law of consumption
(C) The principle of consumer’s surplus
(D) The law of equi-marginal utility

44. Which of the following represents the correct relationship among
MR, AR and ed ?
(A) ed = AR – MR/AR
(B) ed = MR/AR – MR
(C) ed = AR/MR – AR
(D) ed = AR/AR – MR

45. In which of the markets, the relation p = AR = MR holds true ?
(A) Monopolistic competition
(B) Perfect competition
(C) Monopoly
(D) Duopoly

46. Which factor among the following, creates obstacle in measuring correct estimate of national income ?
(A) Existence of non-monetised sector
(B) Inflation
(C) Under-employment
(D) Low rate of savings

47. Which one of the following statement is correct for consumption function propounded by Keynes ?
(A) Consumption increases in equal amount as income rises
(B) Consumption increases in proportional amount as income rises
(C) Consumption increases slower than income
(D) Consumption increases faster than income

48. Which of the following economists has first introduced the term ‘Social accounting’ in place of ‘national income accounting’ ?
(A) J. R. Hicks
(B) V. K. R. V. Rao
(C) Alfred Marshall
(D) K. E. Boulding

49. Incremental Capital-output Ratio is equal to—
(A) Increase in Capital Increase in output
(B) Increase in output Increase in Capital
(C) Increase in output Total output
(D) Capital Stock Total output

50. Disposable income is equal to—
(A) GNP – Depreciation
(B) NNP – Indirect Taxes + Economic Subsidies
(C) Personal Income – Personal Direct Taxes
(D) None of the above

51. ‘Liquidity trap’ refers to—
(A) Unitary elastic liquidity preference curve
(B) Perfectly inelastic liquidity preference curve
(C) Inelastic liquidity preference curve
(D) Perfectly elastic liquidity preference curve

52. Which of the following relationships correctly represent the acceleration principle as defined by Paul A. Samuelson ?
(A) Iut = β Δ Yt – 1
(B) Iut = β (Ct – Ct – 1)
(C) Iut = β (Yt – Yt – 1)
(D) Iut = β (Ct – 1 – Ct – 2)

53. According to Keynes, investors prefer holding money rather than bonds when they expect—
(A) Interest rates to fall
(B) Bond prices to rise
(C) Interest rates to rise
(D) Interest rates to remain constant

54. Who among the following, held the view that ‘savings and investment are always equal but they are not always in equilibrium’ ?
(A) J. M. Keynes
(B) A. Marshall
(C) K. Wicksell
(D) D. Robertson

55. Net National Product (NNP) is equal to—
(A) GNP – Foreign Aid
(B) GNP – Depreciation
(C) GNP – Total Taxes
(D) GNP – Indirect Taxes

56. The most important item of expenditure of the Union Government in India is—
(A) Subsidies
(B) Defence
(C) Wages and salaries
(D) Interest payments

57. Public Debt constitutes—
(A) External public debt
(B) External liabilities and external commercial borrowings
(C) National debt and other miscellaneous debt for which the government is ultimately responsible
(D) Both (B) and (C) above

58. The direct effect of deficit financing is—
(A) It leads to extra money supply which in turn pushes up prices
(B) It leads to extra money supply which in turn makes market more and more competitive
(C) The price situation comes under complete control
(D) Demand and supply both increase

59. A progressive tax—
(A) Imposes the same amount of tax on every individual
(B) Imposes a higher percentage of tax as income rises
(C) Imposes a higher percentage of tax as income decreases
(D) Imposes the same percentage of tax on every individual

60. On which of the following assumptions the comparative cost theory of trade is based on ?
(A) The labour theory of value
(B) Two nations and two commodities
(C) Zero transportation cost
(D) All of the above

61. Who is credited with developing the concept of ‘income terms of trade’ ?
(A) Jacob Viner
(B) G. S. Dorrance
(C) J. S. Mill
(D) F. W. Taussig

62. Which of the following items will be called as a visible item in the balance of payment ?
(A) Export of the commodities
(B) Freight charges of the shipping
(C) Capital investment by the foreigners
(D) Government expenditure in foreign countries

63. The terms of trade is the name given to—
(A) The excess of imports over exports
(B) Unilateral trade agreements between countries
(C) The comparative advantage of one country over another in the production of certain goods
(D) The relationship between prices of imports and prices of exports

64. Fiscal deficit as a percentage of GDP in the Union Budget, 2007-08 is estimated at—
(A) 3•8 per cent
(B) 4•0 per cent
(C) 3•3 per cent
(D) 4•5 per cent

65. The law of Equi-Marginal Utility states—
(A) MUx/Px > MUy/Py > MUz/Pz
(B) MUx/Px = MUy/Py = MUz/Pz
(C) MUx/Px < MUy/Py < MUz/Pz
(D) MUx.Px = MUy.Py = MUz.Pz

66. For a monopolist, the slope of the total cost curve is 12 and the average cost is 15 at that level of output. For maximum profit, the marginal revenue will be—
(A) 12
(B) 27
(C) 3
(D) 15

67. Food subsidy as a percentage of GDP in India is at present—
(A) Less than 0•5 per cent
(B) Between 0•5–1•0 per cent
(C) Between 1•0–3•0 per cent
(D) Between 3•0–5•0 per cent

68. In which of the following states, the population is least as per 2001 Census ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Bihar
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Rajasthan

69. The term ‘demographic dividend’ applies to—
(A) Declining total fertility rate
(B) Declining crude birth rate
(C) Young population and a declining dependency ratio
(D) Increasing life expectancy at birth of females only

70. Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY) was launched in—
(A) 2000
(B) 1999
(C) 2001
(D) 2004

71. When price of a normal goods falls, more of it is purchased because of—
(A) Positive substitution effect only
(B) Positive income effect only
(C) Both (A) and (B) above
(D) None of the above

72. Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below—
List-I (Programme)
(a) Swarnajayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana
(b) Swarnajayanti Shahri Rojgar Yojana
(c) Prime Minister’s Rojgar Yojana
(d) Golden Jubilee Rural Housing Finance Scheme
List-II (Year of Launch)
1. 1999
2. 1997
3. 1993
4. 1997–98
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 2 1 3 4
(D) 4 3 1 2

73. Which of the following economists has called the ‘Law of Equi-marginal Utility’ as ‘Principle of Income Allocation’ ?
(A) Leibhafsky
(B) Leftwich
(C) Marshall
(D) Koopmans

74. The other name by which the Average Revenue Curve is known, is—
(A) Indifference Curve
(B) Income Consumption Curve
(C) Demand Curve
(D) Envelope Curve

75. For a normal commodity, the substitution effect is—
(A) Always positive
(B) Always negative
(C) Zero
(D) Either positive or negative

76. In the Cobb-Douglas production function, the elasticity of substitution between factors is—
(A) Zero
(B) Equal to one
(C) Less than one
(D) Greater than one

77. Total utility is maximum at a point when marginal utility is—
(A) Positive
(B) Negative
(C) Positive but decreasing
(D) Zero

78. Who among the following is the first to use the term ‘Knife-edge’ in the theory of economic growth ?
(A) Rostow
(B) Solow
(C) Harrod
(D) Kaldor

79. Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Amartya Sen
(b) Hirschman
(c) Rostow
(d) G. Myrdal
List-II
1. Stages of Growth
2. Unbalanced Growth
3. Cumulative Circular Causation
4. Choice of Technique
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 1 3 2
(C) 4 2 1 3
(D) 3 2 4 1

80. Which Indian Five Year Plan ensured higher growth rate as compared with targeted growth rate ?
(A) Fifth Plan
(B) Fourth Plan
(C) Second Plan
(D) Eighth Plan

81. Sustainable Development means—
(A) Minimizing poverty
(B) Maximizing current per capita income
(C) Sustaining low budget deficits
(D) Growth without sacrificing the needs of the future generation

82. Who has said, “Development is the result of human efforts” ?
(A) Adam Smith
(B) Harrod
(C) Lewis
(D) Schumpeter

83. ‘Misery Index’ represents—
(A) Sum of rate of inflation and rate of unemployment
(B) Product of rate of inflation and rate of unemployment
(C) Proportion of very poor to poor living below the poverty line
(D) Both the above (B) and (C)

84. According to 2001 Census, which State has the highest density of population in India ?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) West Bengal
(C) Kerala
(D) Maharashtra

85. The total receipts of the State Governments as per cent of G.D.P. in India currently lies in the range of—
(A) Between 6-10 per cent
(B) Between 10-15 per cent
(C) Between 15-20 per cent
(D) Between 25-30 per cent

86. Which one was the most important item of export/foreign exchange earnings in 2005-06 ?
(A) Engineering Goods
(B) Textiles
(C) Gems and Jewellery
(D) Agriculture and Allied products

87. Which among the following taxes, has been the most elastic source of tax revenue in India in recent years ?
(A) Excise duty
(B) Service tax
(C) Custom duty
(D) Corporation tax

88. Which of the following is the most important source of financing the gross fiscal deficit of the Government of India ?
(A) Market borrowings
(B) Loans from the State Government
(C) Loans from the financial institutes
(D) Loans from Provident Funds

89. The definition of Small Scale Industry in India is based on—
(A) Sales of a unit
(B) Investment in machines and equipments
(C) Market coverage
(D) Export capacity

90. Read the following features of Indian Economy—
1. Domestic savings rate has been increasing.
2. Foreign exchange resources have been rising.
3. Growth rate has accelerated in recent years.
Which of the aforesaid is correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2
(D) 1, 2 and 3

91. If the value of marginal propensity to consume is 0•75, the value of investment multiplier would be—
(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 1

92. The transaction demand for money is a function of—
(A) Rate of interest
(B) Income
(C) Profit
(D) Expectations

93. According to Keynes, Investment depends on—
(A) Size of income and propensity to consume
(B) Marginal efficiency of capital and size of income
(C) Marginal efficiency of capital and rate of interest
(D) Propensity to consume and rate of interest

94. Increase in real national income takes place when—
(A) Savings of the public increases
(B) Prices of goods increase
(C) Supply of money in the economy increases
(D) Total production in the economy increases

95. For a hypothetical economy, the Net National Product is Rs. 10,000 crores, Indirect taxes are Rs. 1,500 crores and subsidy is Rs. 800 crores. The value of national income will be—
(A) Rs. 7,700 crores
(B) Rs. 9,300 crores
(C) Rs. 10,800 crores
(D) Rs. 12,300 crores

96. The difference between ‘GDP’ and ‘NDP’ is—
(A) Net Indirect Tax
(B) Government Revenue
(C) Consumption of Fixed Capital
(D) Net Capital Formation

97. The ‘liquidity trap’ shows that—
(A) Interest rate will fall further
(B) Interest rate cannot fall further
(C) Interest rate must rise and bond prices fall
(D) Interest rate must fall and bond prices rise

98. Which of the following concept of money supply is called ‘Broad Money’ in India ?
(A) M1
(B) M2
(C) M3
(D) M4

99. The empirical relationship between the rate of unemployment and the rate of inflation in the short run was formalized by—
(A) A. W. Phillips
(B) James Tobin
(C) Paul Samuelson
(D) John Maynard Keynes

100. Scheduled bank is that bank which is—
(A) Nationalised
(B) Not-nationalised
(C) Based at foreign country
(D) Included in the Second Schedule of R.B.I.

Answers with Hints
1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (B)
6. (B) Marshall’s equation is M = kPy while that of Robertson’s is P = M/kT. P in these equation represents price level.
7. (C) 8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (D) 11. (C)
12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (D) 15. (A)
16. (C) The concept of multiplier was developed by J. M. Keynes as easy as 1929, R. F. Kahn developed it in 1931.
17. (A) 18. (A) 19. (B) 20. (C) 21. (B)
22. (D) 23. (C) 24. (C) 25. (D) 26. (A)
27. (C) 28. (A) 29. (C) 30. (B) 31. (C)
32. (A) 33. (C) 34. (B) 35. (A) 36. (A)
37. (A) 38. (A) 39. (A) 40. (B) 41. (C)
42. (C) 43. (D) 44. (D) 45. (B) 46. (A) 47. (C)
48. (A) 49. (A) 50. (C) 51. (D) 52. (B) 53. (A) 54. (A)
55. (B) 56. (D) 57. (D) 58. (A) 59. (B) 60. (D) 61. (B)
62. (A) 63. (D) 64. (C) 65. (B) 66. (A)
67. (C)
68. (D) Population of various states is as under :
Rajasthan – 5•65 crore
Madhya Pradesh – 6•03 crore
Andhra Pradesh – 7•62 crore
Bihar – 8•29 crore
Hence the correct answer is (D).
69. (C) 70. (A) 71. (C) 72. (A) 73. (C) 74. (C) 75. (B) 76. (B) 77. (D) 78. (C) 79. (C)
80. (D) Growth rate against the target in various Five Year Plan Target Achieved
(a) Fifth Plan – 5•5 5•0
(b) Fourth Plan – 5•7 3•8
(c) Second Plan – 5•0 4•3
(d) Eighth Plan – 5•6 6•8
Thus answer (D) is correct.
81. (D) 82. (A) 83. (B)
84. (B) Density of population in various states :
(A) Uttar Padesh 690
(B) West Bengal 903
(C) Kerala 819
(D) Maharashtra 315
Hence the correct answer is (B) West Bengal.
85. (B) 86. (A) 87. (D) 88. (A) 89. (B)
90. (D) 91. (A) 92. (B)
93. (C) Following factor determine the investment :
(i) Rate of Interest
(ii) Marginal efficiency of capital and
(iii) Cost of capital assets.
Thus answer (C) is correct.
94. (D)
95. (D) Net National Income is termed as National Income. Thus the question’s formating is basically wrong. However, Net National Product at market price = Net National Product at Factor cost + Indirect taxes + Transfer (subsidy). In that case answer (D) is appropriate.
96. (C) 97. (A) 98. (C) 99. (A) 100. (D)

Uttar Pradesh P.C.S (Pre) Exam : Solved Paper

Public Administration : Solved Paper
(Held On 9-12-2006)


1. While preparing the Budget the Ministry of Finance asks from the Ministries of the Government—
(A) Actual figures of previous year
(B) Sanctioned and revised estimates of the current year
(C) Estimates for the next year
(D) All the above

2. Which of the following state-ments about the significance of Public Administration are cor-rect ?
1. Public Administration is a good creative force in the man’s welfare as its ideal.
2. No Government can exist without administration.
3. One of the main functions of administration is to facilitate social change.
4. Beneficiariesofadministration are almost negligible.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) All the four

3. Which one of the following has been suggested by Henri Fayol as an alternative to ‘Through proper channel’ ?
(A) Grapevine
(B) Gangplank
(C) Gossip
(D) Graphic

4. The book “Public Administration in a Time of Turbulence” talks about—
(A) Crisis of American Demo-cracy
(B) New Public Administration
(C) Technological applications in Public Administration
(D) Politics Administration Dichotomy

5. Which one of the following is important features of New Public Administration’ ?
(A) Structural adjustment
(B) Social relevance
(C) Scientific selection of employee
(D) Rationality in decision mak-ing

6. Administration does not in-clude—
(A) Group activity
(B) Co-operation among the members of the group
(C) Co-ordination among activi-ties of participants
(D) Equal participation of mem-bers of the group

7. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Woodrow Wilson has defined Administration as a detailed and systematic appli-cation of law.
Reason (R) : Every specific appli-cation of law is not administra-tion.
In the context of the above sentences which of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

8. Who of the following believed that ‘administration essentially involved reconciliation, involv-ing individuals as well as social groups’ ?
(A) Chester Barnard
(B) Henri Fayol
(C) Herbert Simon
(D) M. P. Follet

9. Arrange the following in their correct chronological sequence by using the code given at the end—
1. Minnowbrook Conference
2. Hawthorne Experiments
3. Scientific Management Move-ment
4. Michigan Research
5. Comparative Administration Group
code :
(A) 2, 4, 5, 3, 1
(B) 3, 2, 4, 5, 1
(C) 4, 3, 1, 2, 5
(D) 5, 1, 2, 4, 3

10. Which of the following factors are responsible for the increasing importance of Public Adminis-tration in modern times ?
1. Emergence of Welfare State.
2. Scientific and technological advancement.
3. Rapid increase in population.
4. Economic planning.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

11. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : The distinction between Public and Private Administrat ion is narrowing down.
Reason (R) : The New Public Administration stresses upon public choice approach.
Inthecontext of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

12. Each Department-related Stand-ing Committee of the Indian Parliament consists of—
(A) 20 members from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha
(B) 30 members from Lok Sabha and 15 from Rajya Sabha
(C) 45 members from only Lok Sabha
(D) 40 Members from only Rajya Sabha

13. Characteristics of Line agencies include—
1. They perform functions necessary to accomplish objectives.
2. They possess authority to issue directives.
3. They come in direct contact with people.
4. They do not come in conflict with staff agencies.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) All the four

14. Which one of the following state-ments is not correct regarding the functions and powers of the Comptroller and Auditor Gene-ral of India ?
(A) He examines the accounts of the Union Government and sub-mits his report to the President
(B) He examines the accounts of the State Governments and submits his report to the Governor of the concerned State
(C) He exercises administrative control over the Audit Officers of the State Governments
(D) If any House needs any information from him, he makes it available through Public Accounts Committee

15. The principles of communication as suggested by Chester Barnard include—
1. Channels of communication should be defined.
2. Line of communication must be as direct and short as possible.
3. Line of communication must function without interruption.
4. Communicators serving the system should be trained periodically.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

16. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Herzberg calls satisfiers as intrinsic factors.
Reason (R) : His studies identi-fied ‘dissatisfiers which are called as extrinsic factors’.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

17. Which one of the following is not an assumption of theory ‘y’ as propounded by McGregor ?
(A) Work is as natural as play and rest for human being
(B) Average human being seeks responsibility
(C) Human potentialities are partially utilised by organisa-tions
(D) Human being wants more security than liberty

18. The idea of ‘Bounded rationality in decision making’ was deve-loped by—
(A) Lindblom
(B) Herbert Simon
(C) Dror
(D) Chester Barnard

19. Match List-I with List-II and selectthe correct answer by using the codes given below the lists.
List-I
(Theories)
(a) Achievement motivation
(b) Expectancy
(c) Equity
(d) ERG

List-II
(Authors)
1. Victor Vroom
2. Alderfer
3. David McClelland
4. J. Stay Adams
code :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 3 4 2 1

20. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists.
List-I
(Models of Decision)
(a) Bounded Rationality Model
(b) Incremental Model
(c) Mixed Scanning Model
(d) Optimal Model

List-II
(Propounder)
1. Dror
2. Etizioni
3. Lindblom
4. Herbert Simon
code :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 3 2 1
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 2 4 3 1

21. The concept of ‘Linking Pin’ was propounded by—
(A) Mayo
(B) Likert
(C) Herzberg
(D) Maslow

22. Who of the following charac-terises the powers and authority of bureaucracy as ‘New Des-potism’ ?
(A) Harold Laski
(B) Ramsay Muir
(C) Lord Hewart
(D) Lord Acton

23. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : In Barnard’s view Authority is not a command but the acceptance of the order by the juniors.
Reason (R) : Behaviouralists believe that Hierarchy is the best way to command and control juniors.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

24. The Path-Goal theory of leader-ship was developed by—
(A) Evans and Robert House
(B) Alderfer and Evans
(C) Hersey and Blanchard
(D) Blake and Mouton

25. Consider the following two state-ments—
Assertion (A) : Co-ordination is collective action of persons while co-operation is synchronization of efforts.
Reason (R) : Co-ordination results in harmonious and uni-fied actions to a stated objective.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

26. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : A sound recruit-ment policy is a must for proper and effective personnel admini-stration.
Reason (R) : A neutral personnel system ensures efficiency in administration.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

27. Which of the following are safe-guards against the evils of bureaucracy ?
1. Decentralisation of authority.
2. Fair and efficient personnel management.
3. Centralisation of authority.
4. Effective control of the Parliament and Cabinet.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) All the four

28. James Buchanan and Gordon Tullock are associated with—
(A) Public Choice Theory
(B) New Public Management
(C) Good Governance
(D) Entrepreneurial Govern-ment

29. Who of the following thinkers is known as ‘Prophet in Manage-ment’ ?
(A) Henri Fayol
(B) Mary Parker Follet
(C) Elton Mayo
(D) F. W. Taylor

30. Which one of the following state-mentsisnotapplicableto Herbert Simon’s decision making model ?
(A) Administrative man maxi-mises.
(B) Factual elements can be evaluated.
(C) Most decisions are com-posite.
(D) Decisions can be influenced.

31. Four systems of leadership were developed by—
(A) Keith Davis
(B) Likert
(C) Robert House
(D) Fred Fiedler

32. Match List-I with List-II in respect of difference between Public Administration and Pri-vate Administration and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(Views of )
(a) Paul H. Appleby
(b) Sir Josia Stamp
(c) Herbert Simon
(d) Peter Drucker

List-II
(Difference on account of)
1. Red-tape
2. Performance management
3. Public accountability
4. Service motive
code :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 3 1 4 2

33. Which one of the following statements about the training of personnel is not correct ?
(A) It is an investment in human resource development.
(B) Training can be only formal.
(C) It is a tool of improving the efficiency of personnel.
(D) It helps to raise the morale of personnel.

34. Which one of the following areas was not recommended by the Administrative Reforms Com-mission for creation of All India Specialist Services ?
(A) Economic Administration
(B) Industrial Administration
(C) Agriculture and Rural Deve-lopment
(D) Urban employment and poverty alleviation.

35. According to Riggs ‘Sala’ repre-sents—
(A) The administrative sub-system of a prismatic society.
(B) The administrative sub-system of a diffracted society.
(C) The administrative sub- system of a fused society.
(D) The administrative sub-system of a democratic society.

36. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : The Rajamannar Committee recommended the abolition of IAS and IPS.
Reason (R) : The IAS and IPS violate the principles of fede-ralism and ministerial responsi-bility at the State level.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

37. Recruitment to the lower ranks of Civil Services is made by—
(A) Administrative Staff College
(B) Ministry of Personnel
(C) Staff Selection Commission
(D) Union Public Service Com-mission

38. The Theory of Scientific Mana-gement basically deals with—
(A) Human behaviour
(B) The best way
(C) Cybernatic system
(D) Informal groups

39. Mid-career training in the IAS and IPS helps in developing—
1. Conceptual skills
2. Professional skills
3. Behavioural skills
4. Pedagogical skills
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 2, 3 and 4

40. Which one of the following countries provides maximum facilities to Civil Servants for participating in political autho-rities ?
(A) Canada
(B) U.S.A.
(C) Switzerland
(D) U.K.

41. Fulton Committee submitted its report on British Civil Service in the year—
(A) 1960
(B) 1966
(C) 1968
(D) 1970

42. Which one of the following Articles of the Indian Consti-tution enjoins that “No tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of law” ?
(A) Article 113
(B) Article 117
(C) Article 203
(D) Article 265

43. Project formulation does not look at—
(A) That the project is tech-nically sound.
(B) That it provides a good economic return.
(C) That it aims at moral uplift of society.
(D) That it is capable of being completed with available resour-ces.

44. In India, who of the following is responsible for the detailed maintenance of accounts of expenditure in the Government ?
(A) Accountant General
(B) Secretary of the Administra-tive Department
(C) Director of Treasuries
(D) Finance Secretary

45. Which one of the following has not been included in the classification of Authority by Max-Weber ?
(A) Legal rational authority
(B) Charismatic authority
(C) Political authority
(D) Traditional authority

46. In the writing of which of the following thinkers, efficiency is a dependent variable ?
1. Gulick and Urwick
2. Riggs
3. Weber
4. Simon
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 3 and 4

47. Which one of the following thinkers believed that the “authority belongs to the job and stays with the job” ?
(A) Oliver Sheldon
(B) Chester Barnard
(C) Herbert Simon
(D) Mary Parker Follet

48. Which of the following are the advantages of Zero-based bud-geting ?
1. It eliminates low-priority pro-grammes.
2. It improves programme effec-tiveness dramatically.
3. It presents the programmes and accomplishments in financial and physical terms.
4. It lays highest emphasis on programmes in order to obtain more finance.
5. It reduces tax incidence.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 2 and 4
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 5
(D) All the five

49. Who of the following said that “the real significance of the budget system lies in providing for the orderly administration of financial affairs of Govern- ment” ?
(A) W. F. Willoughby
(B) A. Wildavasky
(C) Chris Argyris
(D) Lindblom

50. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : The Constitution of India has authorised the Parliament to create a Conting-ency Fund of India.
Reason (R) : The Contingency Fund of India enables the Government to meet out any unforeseen expenditure.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

51. Executive control out adminis-tration is exercised through—
1. Execution of administrative policy.
2. Order issued by supervisors.
3. Necessity to obtain prior approval.
4. System of rewards and punishments.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) All the four

52. In India the Union Government is bound to resign after passing of the—
(A) Censure motion
(B) No-confidence motion
(C) Adjournment motion
(D) Calling attention motion

53. The Railway Budget was separa-ted from the main budget of India in—
(A) 1860
(B) 1919
(C) 1921
(D) 1935

54. Which of the following are means of effective citizens’ control over administration ?
1. Creation of good number of public welfare committees.
2. Intellectuals coming forward and taking the lead.
3. Responsible behaviour of political parties.
4. Associaton of people with decision-making process at appropriate levels.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) All the four

55. Which one of the following is not the responsibility of District Magistrate ?
(A) Public distribution system.
(B) Implementation of poverty alleviation programmes.
(C) Collection of Income Tax
(D) Maintenance of law and order.

56. In which one of the following parts of the Constitution of India has the provision for Panchayati Raj been made ?
(A) IX
(B) IV
(C) III
(D) IX A

57. The Parliamentary Committee on Public Undertakings was set up on the recommendation of—
(A) Krishna Menon Committee
(B) Appleby Committee
(C) Estimates Committee
(D) Comptroller and Auditor General

58. Nooruddin Committee on the training of Municipal Personnel was constituted in the year—
(A) 1962
(B) 1963
(C) 1964
(D) 1965

59. In practice, the Prime Minister is very powerful at the start of his term and reinforces his strength through periodic reshuffles in the Council of Ministers. The latter exercise raises the impor-tance of—
(A) Parliament
(B) Ministries
(C) Cabinet Secretariat
(D) Prime Minister’s Office

60. The Prime Minister presides over—
(A) Finance Commission
(B) Knowledge Commission
(C) Planning Commission
(D) Population Commission

61. Communication
1. is shared understanding of a shared purpose.
2. is meeting of minds on common issues.
3. always follows the formal structure.
4. has to be understood in order to have force of authority.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

62. Which one of the following is not involved in the preparation of plan for development in a district of Uttar Pradesh ?
(A) Gram Panchayat
(B) Kheshtra Panchayat
(C) D.R.D.A.
(D) District Planning Committee

63. Good governance by a municipal body, among other things, depends upon—
1. Committed elected represen-tatives.
2. Committed municipal bureaucracy.
3. Awakened citizenry.
4. State vigilance on its func-tioning.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

64. Crisis of identity as a stage in the evolution of Public Admini-stration belongs to the period—
(A) 1940 – 47
(B) 1948 – 70
(C) 1971 – 90
(D) 1991 onwards

65. The District Collector
1. is a multi-functional autho-rity.
2. works on the principle of anonymity.
3. has no concern with election.
4. is an important link in the administration of the State.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 1 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 3

66. Which of the following state-ments about the scope of Public Administration are true ?
1. Posdcorb view of scope of Public Administration has its limitations.
2. Different agencies face different problems.
3. Substance of administration is different from tools of administration.
4. posdcorb view is subject-oriented.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) All the four

67. Who among the following was the Chairman of the Second Finance Commission in Uttar Pradesh ?
(A) A. P. Singh
(B) Yashpal Singh
(C) T. N. Dhar
(D) B. N. Tiwari

68. Which one of the following is the first Public Corporation created in independent India ?
(A) Life Insurance Corporation
(B) Damodar Valley Corpora-tion
(C) Food Corporation
(D) Central Warehousing Cor-poration

69. Which one of the following does not have a Municipal Corpora-tion ?
(A) Varanasi
(B) Meerut
(C) Gorakhpur
(D) Rampur

70. In a broader sense, Public Administration is related to the functions of—
1. Legislature
2. Executive
3. Government
4. Judiciary
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

71. Classical Theory of Administra-tion has been criticized because
1. it is an unscientific theory of organisation.
2. it neglected the sociological and psychological dimen-sions.
3. its principles do not have universal relevance.
4. it treats an organisation “as an open system”.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) All the four

72. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists.
List-I
(a) Laws, delegation etc.
(b) Positional theory of Autho-rity
(c) Acceptance theory of Autho-rity
(d) Types of authority classifica-tion

List-II
1. Behaviouralists
2. Max Weber
3. Classical Thinkers
4. Source of Authority
code :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 2 1 4 3

73. “Co-ordination is the beginning and the end of all organised efforts.” This statement was made by—
(A) Luther Gulick
(B) Woodrow Wilson
(C) J. D. Mooney
(D) F. M. Marx

74. Who of the following said that ‘Cabinet’ is a hyphen that joins the buckle that binds the executive and the legislative departments together ?
(A) Lowell
(B) Laski
(C) Muir
(D) Bagehot

75. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Prime Minister is the Primus enter pares in a Cabinet form of Government.
Reason (R) : His position is undermined by the dominant leaders of political parties in a Coalition Government.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

76. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : The Governor is appointed by the President of India and remains in office during his pleasure.
Reason (R) : The power to hire and fire the Governor is exclu-sively available to the President.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

77. Taylorism became popular as ‘Stakhanovit movement’ in—
(A) U.S.S.R.
(B) Germany
(C) Britain
(D) Japan

78. An organisation
1. consists of unstructured rela-tionshipsbetween individuals
2. is a system of consciously co-ordinated activities
3. always works for a purpose
4. functions with the help of an informal organisation
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

79. Which one of the following statements about ‘Responsibility’ is NOT correct ?
(A) Responsibility is the obliga-tion of a person to achieve mutually determined results
(B) Operating responsibility is delegated to the subordinates
(C) Authority and responsibility exist independently
(D) Ultimate responsibility can-not be delegated

80. Which of the following statements about Parkinson’s Law are true ?
1. There is little or no relation-ship between the work and the size of the staff.
2. Work expands to fill the time available for its com-pletion.
3. Parkinson’s Second Law states that expenditure rises to meet income.
4. The growth of administra-tive hierarchies is dependent upon the increase in work.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) All the four

81. Which of the following state-ments about ‘Delegation’ are correct ?
1. It helps in increasing sense of responsibility among emplo-yees.
2. Implementation of critical programmes needs extensive delegation.
3. Lack of effective means of internal communication han-dicaps delegation.
4. It facilitates approval of new programmesbysubordinates.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 4

82. Consider the following state-ments—
Assertion (A) : An adminsitra-tive organisation is an open social system.
Reason (R) : Systems approach favours a flexible participative structure.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

83. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists.
List-I
(a) Charismatic authority
(b) Legalrational authority
(c) Traditional authority
(d) Legitimate authority

List-II
1. Obedience to the ruler.
2. Obedience by virtue of per-sonal trust.
3. Obedience because of adher-ence to rules and proce-dures.
4. Obedience of the command as voluntary.
code :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 1 4
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 3 4 1 2

84. The constitution of Public Accounts Committee, first sug-gested by the Webly Commission in 1896, now has members from—
(A) Lok Sabha only
(B) Rajya Sabha only
(C) Both the Houses
(D) AsnomineesofthePresident

85. Headquarters’ control over field administration is exercised through the methods of—
1. Reports
2. Administrative Manuals
3. Inspection
4. Investigation
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) All the four

86. Which of the following are deter-mined by the budget ?
1. Financial and managerial accountability of the execu-tive to the legislature.
2. Subordinate’s accountability to superior official in the executive.
3. Legislative accountability to the judiciary.
4. Government departments’ accountability to the Finance Commission.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 2 and 4

87. 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act has provided for—
1. constitutional status to Panchayati Raj bodies.
2. one-third reservation for women.
3. a separate test of subjects.
4. a separate Ministry in the Centre.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) All the four

88. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists.
List-I
(a) The Ecology of Public Administration
(b) The Golden Book of Mana-gement
(c) The Administrative State
(d) Economy and Society

List-II
1. Urwick
2. Riggs
3. Weber
4. Waldo
code :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 2 1 3 4

89. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : The role of the Collector in developmental functions has decreased during the past few years.
Reason (R) : The Collectors are preoccupied with many other things.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct expla-nation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

90. Which one of the following is not included in the Panchayati Raj System ?
(A) Zilla Panchayat
(B) Village Panchayat
(C) Nagar Panchayat
(D) Kheshtra Panchayat

91. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists.
List-I
(a) Centralization
(b) Decentralization
(c) Demerit of centralization
(d) Demerit of decentralization

List-II
1. Delay in securing action by the field officials.
2. Unsuitable for dealing with emergencies.
3. Concentration of authority at top level.
4. Transfer of authority to lower levels.
code :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) 3 4 1 2

92. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
(A) N.C.R. and Union Territory of Delhi are two entities
(B) N.C.R. and Union Territory of Delhi have same boundaries
(C) U.T. of Delhi has one single Local Government institution
(D) Development of N.C.R is the sole concern of Central Govern-ment

93. Given below are two state-ments—
Assertion (A) : The election system and working of Panchayati Raj institutions is similar in all the States.
Reason (R) : 73rd Amendment has introduced certain unifor-mity in the Panchayati Raj system.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

94. Who of the following said that co-ordination is the first princi-ple of organisation ?
(A) Henri Fayol
(B) Williams
(C) James D. Mooney
(D) Chester Barnard

95. Select the correct sequence of the following administrative events by using the code given at the end—
1. Pendleton Act, U.S.A.
2. All India Service Act.
3. Setting up of Kothari Com-mission on Recruitment Policy and Selection Method.
4. Constitution of Fulton Com-mitteeon British Civil Service.
code :
(A) 1, 2, 4, 3
(B) 2, 3, 1, 4
(C) 3, 4, 2, 1
(D) 4, 3, 1, 2

96. Which of the following state-ments are correct ?
1. The generalist-specialist con-troversy is dead now.
2. Persons with specialized educational background enter the civil service in increasing number.
3. Specialists compete with generalists in the power-game.
4. A generalist by virtue of his grooming is disliked by political executives in the Secretariat.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4

97. ‘Administrative Man’ model represents the real situation by—
(A) Organisation behaviour
(B) Decision-making behaviour
(C) Money-making behaviour
(D) Supportive behaviour

98. According to Gulick, three major factors determine the ‘span of control’ of an executive.
Which one of the following is not the factor ?
(A) Element of purpose
(B) Element of time
(C) Element of space
(D) Element of diversification of functions

99. Development Administration in India is mainly concerned with—
(A) The development of heavy industries
(B) Maintenance of law and order
(C) Economic development and promotion of social justice
(D) Redressal of public grie-vances

100. ‘Span of Control’ stands for—
1. Span of communication
2. Span of management
3. Span of units of work
4. Span of attention
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) All the four

101. Which of the following are cor-rect as measures to reduce line-staff conflicts ?
1. Clear demarcation of the responsibilities of the two.
2. Creation of opportunities for exchange of roles.
3. Laying emphasis on unity of purpose.
4. Maintenance of anonymity by staff agencies.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) All the four

102. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Talcott Parsons is known for his Structural-Func-tional Approach.
Reason (R) : Functionally dif-fused, functionally specific and intermediate societies cannot be compared.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

103. The Comparative Public Admi-nistration emphasizes that—
1. The Principles of Public Administration are seriously inadequate.
2. Any proper discipline must have complementary pure and applied aspects.
3. Organisation must be viewed as embedded in specific cultures and poli-tical settings.
4. Both the study and practice of administration are per-vasively value-loaded,
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 1 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

104. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of steps in Recruitment process ?
(A) Induction, Selection, Proba-tion and Appointment
(B) Selection, Appointment, Probation and Induction
(C) Appointment, Probation, Selection and Induction
(D) Selection, Probation, Induc-tion and Appointmen

105. Consider the following two state-ments—
Assertion (A) : Job-oriented supervisors do not permit the participation of subordinates in decision-making process.
Reason (R) : They exert little pressure on subordinates.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explana-tion of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

106. U.P. State Employees Welfare Corporation is a—
(A) Public Corporation
(B) Government Company
(C) Joint Stock Company
(D) Registered Society

107. Who of the following was the first to make a distinction bet-ween ‘power’ and ‘authority’ ?
(A) M. P. Follett
(B) Max Weber
(C) Kautilya
(D) Frank Goodnow

108. During the course of working of personnel, learning and achiev-ing administrative efficiency is known as—
(A) Informal training
(B) Formal training
(C) Post-entry training
(D) Orientation training

109. Which of the following consi-derations are taken into account while granting promotion ?
1. Merit
2. Length of Service
3. Integrity
4. Age
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

110. Which of the following are Constitutional Commissions in India ?
1. Election Commission
2. Planning Commission
3. Human Rights Commission
4. Finance Commission
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 4
(D) 3 and 4

111. Consider the following two state-ments—
Assertion (A) : According to Chester Barnard, leadership depends upon three things – individual, followers and the conditions.
Reason (R) : According to Chester Barnard, there are three styles of leadership-trait, beha-vioural and situational.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explana-tion of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

112. ‘Greatman’ Theory of Leader-ship led to the rise of—
(A) Behavioural Theory of Leadership
(B) Situational Theory of Leadership
(C) Trait Theory of Leadership
(D) None of the above

113. The powers of Parliament in respect of passage of the Budget are enshrined in the Constitu-tion in—
(A) Art. 114
(B) Art. 113 & 203
(C) Art. 265 to 267
(D) Art. 112 to 117

114. The traditional type of budget-ing is concerned with—
(A) Program Budgeting
(B) Lump-sum Budgeting
(C) Line-item Budgeting
(D) Performance Budgeting

115. The Budget was formally intro-duced in India in—
(A) 1857
(B) 1860
(C) 1868
(D) 1919

116. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Administrative decisions in Government cannot possibly be evaluated through scientific methods.
Reason (R) : Administrative decisions in Government involve facts and value premises.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explana-tion of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

117. Which one of the following is the correct meaning of the pri-nciple of ‘Unity of Command’ ?
(A) More than one superior official should command the subordinates
(B) There should be uniformity in commands by higher officials
(C) Subordinates must receive command from only one higher official.
(D) Subordinate should follow the commands from all the superior officials

118. The classical theorists attached more importance to—
(A) Role of people in organisa-tion
(B) Structural designing of organisation
(C) Inter-personal relations in organisation
(D) Rational bureaucracy

119. Which one of the following is correct about ‘Behavioural Approach’ ?
(A) Use of traditional tools of analysis.
(B) Use of non-ecological studies.
(C) Belief in philosophical defi-nition of the term.
(D) Use of empirical studies.

120. ‘Acceptance theory of Autho-rity’ was propounded by—
(A) Chester Barnard
(B) Herbert Simon
(C) Robert Merton
(D) Elton Mayo


Answers with Explanations :
1. (D)
2. (C) Public Administration is a good creative force in the man’s welfare as its ideal. No Govern-ment can exist without admini-stration. One of the main func-tions of administration is to facilitate social change.
3. (B)Henri Fayol has suggested Gangplank as an alternative to ‘Through proper channel’ in the organisation.
4. (B) The book Public Adminis-tration in a Time of Turbulence by Dwight Waldo in (1971) talks about New Public Adminis-tration.
5. (B)Social relevance is the impor-tant feature of New Public Admi-nistration.
6. (D)Administration includes group activity, cooperation among the members of the group and coordination among the activities of participants.
7. (C)Woodrow Wilson defined Public Administration as detai-led and systematic study of law.
8. (A)AccordingtoChester Barnard Administration essentially is related to reconciliation, involv-ing individual as well as social groups.

9. (B)The correct chronological sequence of the major events in Public Administration—
1. Scientific Management Movement.
2. Hawthorne Experiments (1924-1932)
3. Michigan Research (1946).
4. Comparative Administrative Group (1960)
5. Minnowbrook Conference (1968).

10. (D)The factors responsible for the increasing importance of Public Administration in modern times are as follows—
1. Emergence of welfare state.
2. Scientific and technological advancement.
3. Rapid increase in popula-tion.
4. Economic planning.

11. (C)The distinction between Public and Private Administra-tion is narrowing down.
12. (B)Each Department-related Standing Committee of Indian Parliament consist of 45 mem-bers—30 members from Lok Sabha and 15 from Rajya Sabha.

13. (C) Characteristics of the Line Agencies include—
1. They perform functions necessary to accomplish objectives.
2. They possess authority to issue directives.
3. They come in direct contact with people.

14. (C)Comptroller Auditor General examines the account of the Union Government and submits his report to the President. He examines the accounts of the State Government and submits his report to the Governor of the concerned/state. If any House seeks any information from him he makes it available through PAC.
15. (D)All the four statement are correct.
16. (B)Herzberg calls satisfiers as intrinsic factors. His studies identifier ‘dissatisfiers’ which he calls ‘extrinsic factors’.
17. (D) y theory propounded by Douglas McGregor assumes that work is as natural as play and rest for human being. Average human being seeks responsibility and human potentialities are partially utilised by organi-sations. Emphasis on security is not inherent human charac-teristic but a consequence of experience.
18. (B) The idea of Bounded rationa-lity in decision making was developed by Herbert Simon.

19. (C) Match the following—
(A) Achievement motivation—David McClelland
(B) Expectancy theory—Victor Vrom
(C) Equity —J. Stay Adams
(D) ERG —Alderfer

20. (A)
(i) Bounded Rationality Model —Herbert Simon
(ii) Incremental Model —Lindblom
(iii) Mixed Scanning Model —Etizioni
(iv) Optimal Model —Dror

21. (B) The concept of linking pen was propounded by Likert.
22. (C) LordHewartcharacterises the powers and authority of bureau-cracy as New Despotism.
23. (B) In Barnard’s view Authority is not a command but the acceptance of the order by the juniors. Behavouralists believe that Hierarchy is the best way to command and control juniors.
24. (A) The Path-Goal theory of leadership was developed by Evans and Robert House.
25. (D) Co-ordination is the synchro-nization of efforts while co-operation is the collective action. Co-ordination results in harmo-nious and unified actions to a related objective.
26. (B) A sound recruitment policy is a must for proper and effective personnel administration. A neutral personnel system ensures efficiency in administration.
27. (C) Decentralisation of authority, fair and efficient personnel management and effective con-trolof theParliamentand Cabinet are safeguards against evils of bureaucracy.
28. (A) James Buchanan and Gordon Tullock are associated with Public Choice Theory.
29. (D)
30. (C) In Herbert Simon decision making model administrative man maximises, factual elements can be evaluated and decisions can be influenced.
31. (B) Rensis Likert developed four system of leadership.
32. (B)
33. (B) Training can both be formal and informal.
34. (D) ARC recommended creation of All India Specialist Services for Economic, Industrial, Agri-cultural and Rural Adminis-tration.
35. (A) According to Riggs ‘Sala’ represents the administrative sub-systemof a prismatic society.
36. (A)
37. (C) Recruitment to the lower ranks of Civil Services is made by Staff Selection Commission.
38. (B) The theory of Scientific Mana-gement basically deals with the best way.
39. (A) Mid-career training in the IAS and IPS helps in developing conceptual skills, professional skills, behavioural skills.
40. (C) Switzerland provides maxi-mum facilities to civil servants for participating in political authorities.
41. (C) Fulton Committee submitted its report on British Civil Services in the year of 1968.
42. (D) Article 265 of the Indian Constitution enjoins “No tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of law”.
43. (C) Project formulation looks at that the project is technically sound, that it is capable of being completed with available resour-ces and that it provides good economic return.
44. (A) In India, Accountant General is responsible for the detailed maintenance of accounts of expenditure in the Government.
45. (C) Legal-rational authority, charismatic authority and tradi-tional authority are the three types of authorities propounded by Max Weber.
46. (C)
47. (D) Mary Parker Follet believes that authority belongs to the job and stays with the job.
48. (D) All the five statements are trueaboutZero-basedbudgeting.
49. (A)
50. (B) The Constitution of India has authorised the Parliament to create a Contingency Fund of India. The Contingency Fund of India enables the Government to meet out any unforeseen expenditure.
51. (D) All the four statements about executive control over Adminis-tration are true.
52. (B) In India the Union Govern-ment is bound to resign after passing of the No-confidence motion.
53. (C) The Railway Budget was separated from the main budget of India in 1921.
54. (D) All the four statements are true about effective citizens’ control over administration.
55. (C) D.M. is responsible for Public Distribution System, implemen-tation of poverty Alleviation pro-grammes and maintenance of law and order.
56. (A) Part IX of the Constitution has the provision for Panchayati Raj.
57. (A) The Parliamentary Com-mittee on Public Undertakings was set up on the recommenda-tion of Krishna Menon Com-mittee in 1964.
58. (B) Nooruddin Committee on the training of Municipal Personnel was constituted in 1963.
59. (D) In practice, the Prime Mini-ster is very powerful at the start of his term and reinforces his strength through periodic reshuf-fles in the Council of Ministers the latter exercises raises the importance of Prime Minister’s Office.
60. (C) The Prime Minister presides over Planning Commission.
61. (D) All the four statements are true about communication.
62. (C)
63. (D) All the four statements are true about Good governance by a municipal body. Good gover-nance by a municipal body among other things depends upon committed and elected representatives, committed municipal bureaucracy, awake-ned citizenry and state vigilance on its functioning.
64. (B) Crisis of identity as stage in the evolution of Public Admi-nistration belongs to the period of 1948-1970.
65. (C) The District Collector is a multi-functional authority and is an important link in the admi-nistration of the state.
66. (C) POSDCORB view of scope of Public Administration has its limitations. Different agencies face different problems. Subs-tanance of administration is dif-ferent from tools of administra-tion.
67. (C) T.N. Dhar was the Chairman of the Second Finance Commiss-ion in Uttar Pradesh.
68. (B) Damodar Valley Corporation (Established in 1948) is the first Public Corporation created in independent India.
69. (D) The Municipal Corporations in U.P. exist at Aligarh, Agra, Allahabad, Kanpur, Ghaziabad, Gorakhpur, Barailly, Meerut, Muradabad, Lucknow, Varanasi total 11.
Note—In Jhansi and Rampur Municipal Corporations do not exit.
70. (C) In a broader sense, Public Administration is related to the functions of Legislature, Execu-tive and Judiciary.
71. (B) Classical Theory of Adminis-trationhasbeencriticisedbecause it neglected the sociological and psychological dimensions and its principles do not have universal relevance.

72. (C)
(A) Laws, delegation etc.—Source of Authority
(B) Positional Theory of Autho-rity —Classical Thinkers
(C) Acceptance theory of Autho-rity —Behaviouralists
(D) Types of authority classifica-tion —Max Weber

73. (C) According to J.D. Mooney—“Coordination is the beginning and the end of all organized efforts.”
74. (D) According to Bagehot “Cabinet is a hyphen that joins the buckle that binds the execu-tive and Legislative departments together.”
75. (B)
76. (C) The Governor is appointed by the President of India and remains in office during his pleasure.
77. (A) Taylorism became popular as Stakhanovit movement in U.S.S.R.
78. (C) An organisation is a system of consciously co-ordinated acti-vities, always works for a pur-pose : and functions with the help of an informal organisation.
79. (C) Authority and responsibility are inter-related and they co-exist.
80. (A) According to Parkinson’s Law—There is little or no relationship between the work and the size of the staff. Work expands to fill the time available for its completion.
81. (B) Delegation helps in increas-ing sense of responsibility among employees Lack of effective means of internal communica-tion handicaps delegation.
82. (B) An administrative organisa-tionisopensocial system. System approves favours a flexible par-ticipative structure.
83. (B)
84. (C) The Constitution of Public Accounts Committee first sug-gested by the Webly Commission in 1896 now has 15 members from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha.
85. (D) Headquarters control over the field administration is exercised through the methods of Reports, AdministrativeManuals, Inspection and Investi-gation.
86. (A) Budget ensures the financial and managerial accountability of the executive to the legislature. It also ensures subordinates accountability to superior official in the executive.
87. (D) 73rd Constitutional Amend-ment Act has provided for constitutional status for the Panchayati Raj, one third reser-vation for women, a separate list of subjects, a separate Ministry in the Centre.
88. (B)
89. (D) The Collectors are preoccu-pied with many other things.
90. (C) Nagar Panchayat is included in Urban local government system.
91. (D)
92. (B) NCR and Union Territories have the same boundaries.
93. (D)
94. (C) According to J.D. Mooney Co-ordination is the first pri-nciple of organisation.

95. (A)
(i) Pendleton Act U.S.A.—1883
(ii) All India Service Act—1951
(iii) Fulton Committee—1968
(iv) Kothari Commission—1974-76

96. (B) Persons with specialized educational background enter the civil service in increasing number specialists compete with Generalists in the power-game.
97. (B) Administrative Man’s model represents the real situation by decision making behaviour.

98. (A) According to Gulick three major following factors deter-mine the span of control of an executive.
(i) Element of diversification of functions.
(ii) Element of time.
(iii) Element of space.

99. (C) Development Administration in India is mainly concerned with economic development and promotion of social justice.
100. (D) Span of Control stands for span of communication, span of management, span of units of work and span of attention.

101. (C) The following measures can be taken to reduce staff line conflicts.
(1) Clear demarcation of the responsibilities of the two.
(2) Creation of opportunities for exchanging roles.
(3) Laying emphasis on unity of purpose.

102. (C) Talcott Parsons is known for his Structural-Functional Approach.
103. (D) All the four statements about Comparative Public Admi-nistrative are true.
104. (C) Sequence of steps in Recruitment process—Selection, Appointment Probation and Induction.
105. (C)
106. (B) U.P.State employees welfare corporation is a Government Company.
107. (B) 108. (A)
109. (A) Merit and length of service are the considerations which are taken into account while grant-ing promotion.
110. (C) Election Commission (Article 324) and Finance Commission (Article 280) are the Consti-tutional Commission.
111. (C) According to Barnard leadership depends upon three things—individual, followers and conditions.
112. (C) Greatman theory of leader-ship led to the rise of Trait theory of Leadership.
113. (D) The powers of Parliament in respect of passage of the Budget are enshrined in the Constitution in Art. 112 to 117.
114. (C) The traditional type of budgeting is concerned with line item budgeting.
115. (B)The budget was formally introduced in India in 1860.
116. (A) Administrative decisions in Government can not be evalua-ted through scientific methods because administrative decisions in government involve facts and value premises.
117. (C) Unity of Command means that subordinates must receive command from only one higher official.
118. (B) The classical theorists atta-ched more importance to struc-tural designing of organisation.
119. (D) Behavioural approach stands for use of empirical studies.
120. (A)