Public Administration : Solved Paper
(Held On 9-12-2006)
1. While preparing the Budget the Ministry of Finance asks from the Ministries of the Government—
(A) Actual figures of previous year
(B) Sanctioned and revised estimates of the current year
(C) Estimates for the next year
(D) All the above
2. Which of the following state-ments about the significance of Public Administration are cor-rect ?
1. Public Administration is a good creative force in the man’s welfare as its ideal.
2. No Government can exist without administration.
3. One of the main functions of administration is to facilitate social change.
4. Beneficiariesofadministration are almost negligible.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) All the four
3. Which one of the following has been suggested by Henri Fayol as an alternative to ‘Through proper channel’ ?
(A) Grapevine
(B) Gangplank
(C) Gossip
(D) Graphic
4. The book “Public Administration in a Time of Turbulence” talks about—
(A) Crisis of American Demo-cracy
(B) New Public Administration
(C) Technological applications in Public Administration
(D) Politics Administration Dichotomy
5. Which one of the following is important features of New Public Administration’ ?
(A) Structural adjustment
(B) Social relevance
(C) Scientific selection of employee
(D) Rationality in decision mak-ing
6. Administration does not in-clude—
(A) Group activity
(B) Co-operation among the members of the group
(C) Co-ordination among activi-ties of participants
(D) Equal participation of mem-bers of the group
7. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Woodrow Wilson has defined Administration as a detailed and systematic appli-cation of law.
Reason (R) : Every specific appli-cation of law is not administra-tion.
In the context of the above sentences which of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
8. Who of the following believed that ‘administration essentially involved reconciliation, involv-ing individuals as well as social groups’ ?
(A) Chester Barnard
(B) Henri Fayol
(C) Herbert Simon
(D) M. P. Follet
9. Arrange the following in their correct chronological sequence by using the code given at the end—
1. Minnowbrook Conference
2. Hawthorne Experiments
3. Scientific Management Move-ment
4. Michigan Research
5. Comparative Administration Group
code :
(A) 2, 4, 5, 3, 1
(B) 3, 2, 4, 5, 1
(C) 4, 3, 1, 2, 5
(D) 5, 1, 2, 4, 3
10. Which of the following factors are responsible for the increasing importance of Public Adminis-tration in modern times ?
1. Emergence of Welfare State.
2. Scientific and technological advancement.
3. Rapid increase in population.
4. Economic planning.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four
11. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : The distinction between Public and Private Administrat ion is narrowing down.
Reason (R) : The New Public Administration stresses upon public choice approach.
Inthecontext of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
12. Each Department-related Stand-ing Committee of the Indian Parliament consists of—
(A) 20 members from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha
(B) 30 members from Lok Sabha and 15 from Rajya Sabha
(C) 45 members from only Lok Sabha
(D) 40 Members from only Rajya Sabha
13. Characteristics of Line agencies include—
1. They perform functions necessary to accomplish objectives.
2. They possess authority to issue directives.
3. They come in direct contact with people.
4. They do not come in conflict with staff agencies.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) All the four
14. Which one of the following state-ments is not correct regarding the functions and powers of the Comptroller and Auditor Gene-ral of India ?
(A) He examines the accounts of the Union Government and sub-mits his report to the President
(B) He examines the accounts of the State Governments and submits his report to the Governor of the concerned State
(C) He exercises administrative control over the Audit Officers of the State Governments
(D) If any House needs any information from him, he makes it available through Public Accounts Committee
15. The principles of communication as suggested by Chester Barnard include—
1. Channels of communication should be defined.
2. Line of communication must be as direct and short as possible.
3. Line of communication must function without interruption.
4. Communicators serving the system should be trained periodically.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four
16. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Herzberg calls satisfiers as intrinsic factors.
Reason (R) : His studies identi-fied ‘dissatisfiers which are called as extrinsic factors’.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
17. Which one of the following is not an assumption of theory ‘y’ as propounded by McGregor ?
(A) Work is as natural as play and rest for human being
(B) Average human being seeks responsibility
(C) Human potentialities are partially utilised by organisa-tions
(D) Human being wants more security than liberty
18. The idea of ‘Bounded rationality in decision making’ was deve-loped by—
(A) Lindblom
(B) Herbert Simon
(C) Dror
(D) Chester Barnard
19. Match List-I with List-II and selectthe correct answer by using the codes given below the lists.
List-I
(Theories)
(a) Achievement motivation
(b) Expectancy
(c) Equity
(d) ERG
List-II
(Authors)
1. Victor Vroom
2. Alderfer
3. David McClelland
4. J. Stay Adams
code :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 3 4 2 1
20. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists.
List-I
(Models of Decision)
(a) Bounded Rationality Model
(b) Incremental Model
(c) Mixed Scanning Model
(d) Optimal Model
List-II
(Propounder)
1. Dror
2. Etizioni
3. Lindblom
4. Herbert Simon
code :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 3 2 1
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 2 4 3 1
21. The concept of ‘Linking Pin’ was propounded by—
(A) Mayo
(B) Likert
(C) Herzberg
(D) Maslow
22. Who of the following charac-terises the powers and authority of bureaucracy as ‘New Des-potism’ ?
(A) Harold Laski
(B) Ramsay Muir
(C) Lord Hewart
(D) Lord Acton
23. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : In Barnard’s view Authority is not a command but the acceptance of the order by the juniors.
Reason (R) : Behaviouralists believe that Hierarchy is the best way to command and control juniors.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
24. The Path-Goal theory of leader-ship was developed by—
(A) Evans and Robert House
(B) Alderfer and Evans
(C) Hersey and Blanchard
(D) Blake and Mouton
25. Consider the following two state-ments—
Assertion (A) : Co-ordination is collective action of persons while co-operation is synchronization of efforts.
Reason (R) : Co-ordination results in harmonious and uni-fied actions to a stated objective.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
26. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : A sound recruit-ment policy is a must for proper and effective personnel admini-stration.
Reason (R) : A neutral personnel system ensures efficiency in administration.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
27. Which of the following are safe-guards against the evils of bureaucracy ?
1. Decentralisation of authority.
2. Fair and efficient personnel management.
3. Centralisation of authority.
4. Effective control of the Parliament and Cabinet.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) All the four
28. James Buchanan and Gordon Tullock are associated with—
(A) Public Choice Theory
(B) New Public Management
(C) Good Governance
(D) Entrepreneurial Govern-ment
29. Who of the following thinkers is known as ‘Prophet in Manage-ment’ ?
(A) Henri Fayol
(B) Mary Parker Follet
(C) Elton Mayo
(D) F. W. Taylor
30. Which one of the following state-mentsisnotapplicableto Herbert Simon’s decision making model ?
(A) Administrative man maxi-mises.
(B) Factual elements can be evaluated.
(C) Most decisions are com-posite.
(D) Decisions can be influenced.
31. Four systems of leadership were developed by—
(A) Keith Davis
(B) Likert
(C) Robert House
(D) Fred Fiedler
32. Match List-I with List-II in respect of difference between Public Administration and Pri-vate Administration and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(Views of )
(a) Paul H. Appleby
(b) Sir Josia Stamp
(c) Herbert Simon
(d) Peter Drucker
List-II
(Difference on account of)
1. Red-tape
2. Performance management
3. Public accountability
4. Service motive
code :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 3 1 4 2
33. Which one of the following statements about the training of personnel is not correct ?
(A) It is an investment in human resource development.
(B) Training can be only formal.
(C) It is a tool of improving the efficiency of personnel.
(D) It helps to raise the morale of personnel.
34. Which one of the following areas was not recommended by the Administrative Reforms Com-mission for creation of All India Specialist Services ?
(A) Economic Administration
(B) Industrial Administration
(C) Agriculture and Rural Deve-lopment
(D) Urban employment and poverty alleviation.
35. According to Riggs ‘Sala’ repre-sents—
(A) The administrative sub-system of a prismatic society.
(B) The administrative sub-system of a diffracted society.
(C) The administrative sub- system of a fused society.
(D) The administrative sub-system of a democratic society.
36. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : The Rajamannar Committee recommended the abolition of IAS and IPS.
Reason (R) : The IAS and IPS violate the principles of fede-ralism and ministerial responsi-bility at the State level.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
37. Recruitment to the lower ranks of Civil Services is made by—
(A) Administrative Staff College
(B) Ministry of Personnel
(C) Staff Selection Commission
(D) Union Public Service Com-mission
38. The Theory of Scientific Mana-gement basically deals with—
(A) Human behaviour
(B) The best way
(C) Cybernatic system
(D) Informal groups
39. Mid-career training in the IAS and IPS helps in developing—
1. Conceptual skills
2. Professional skills
3. Behavioural skills
4. Pedagogical skills
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 2, 3 and 4
40. Which one of the following countries provides maximum facilities to Civil Servants for participating in political autho-rities ?
(A) Canada
(B) U.S.A.
(C) Switzerland
(D) U.K.
41. Fulton Committee submitted its report on British Civil Service in the year—
(A) 1960
(B) 1966
(C) 1968
(D) 1970
42. Which one of the following Articles of the Indian Consti-tution enjoins that “No tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of law” ?
(A) Article 113
(B) Article 117
(C) Article 203
(D) Article 265
43. Project formulation does not look at—
(A) That the project is tech-nically sound.
(B) That it provides a good economic return.
(C) That it aims at moral uplift of society.
(D) That it is capable of being completed with available resour-ces.
44. In India, who of the following is responsible for the detailed maintenance of accounts of expenditure in the Government ?
(A) Accountant General
(B) Secretary of the Administra-tive Department
(C) Director of Treasuries
(D) Finance Secretary
45. Which one of the following has not been included in the classification of Authority by Max-Weber ?
(A) Legal rational authority
(B) Charismatic authority
(C) Political authority
(D) Traditional authority
46. In the writing of which of the following thinkers, efficiency is a dependent variable ?
1. Gulick and Urwick
2. Riggs
3. Weber
4. Simon
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 3 and 4
47. Which one of the following thinkers believed that the “authority belongs to the job and stays with the job” ?
(A) Oliver Sheldon
(B) Chester Barnard
(C) Herbert Simon
(D) Mary Parker Follet
48. Which of the following are the advantages of Zero-based bud-geting ?
1. It eliminates low-priority pro-grammes.
2. It improves programme effec-tiveness dramatically.
3. It presents the programmes and accomplishments in financial and physical terms.
4. It lays highest emphasis on programmes in order to obtain more finance.
5. It reduces tax incidence.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 2 and 4
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 5
(D) All the five
49. Who of the following said that “the real significance of the budget system lies in providing for the orderly administration of financial affairs of Govern- ment” ?
(A) W. F. Willoughby
(B) A. Wildavasky
(C) Chris Argyris
(D) Lindblom
50. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : The Constitution of India has authorised the Parliament to create a Conting-ency Fund of India.
Reason (R) : The Contingency Fund of India enables the Government to meet out any unforeseen expenditure.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
51. Executive control out adminis-tration is exercised through—
1. Execution of administrative policy.
2. Order issued by supervisors.
3. Necessity to obtain prior approval.
4. System of rewards and punishments.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) All the four
52. In India the Union Government is bound to resign after passing of the—
(A) Censure motion
(B) No-confidence motion
(C) Adjournment motion
(D) Calling attention motion
53. The Railway Budget was separa-ted from the main budget of India in—
(A) 1860
(B) 1919
(C) 1921
(D) 1935
54. Which of the following are means of effective citizens’ control over administration ?
1. Creation of good number of public welfare committees.
2. Intellectuals coming forward and taking the lead.
3. Responsible behaviour of political parties.
4. Associaton of people with decision-making process at appropriate levels.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) All the four
55. Which one of the following is not the responsibility of District Magistrate ?
(A) Public distribution system.
(B) Implementation of poverty alleviation programmes.
(C) Collection of Income Tax
(D) Maintenance of law and order.
56. In which one of the following parts of the Constitution of India has the provision for Panchayati Raj been made ?
(A) IX
(B) IV
(C) III
(D) IX A
57. The Parliamentary Committee on Public Undertakings was set up on the recommendation of—
(A) Krishna Menon Committee
(B) Appleby Committee
(C) Estimates Committee
(D) Comptroller and Auditor General
58. Nooruddin Committee on the training of Municipal Personnel was constituted in the year—
(A) 1962
(B) 1963
(C) 1964
(D) 1965
59. In practice, the Prime Minister is very powerful at the start of his term and reinforces his strength through periodic reshuffles in the Council of Ministers. The latter exercise raises the impor-tance of—
(A) Parliament
(B) Ministries
(C) Cabinet Secretariat
(D) Prime Minister’s Office
60. The Prime Minister presides over—
(A) Finance Commission
(B) Knowledge Commission
(C) Planning Commission
(D) Population Commission
61. Communication
1. is shared understanding of a shared purpose.
2. is meeting of minds on common issues.
3. always follows the formal structure.
4. has to be understood in order to have force of authority.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four
62. Which one of the following is not involved in the preparation of plan for development in a district of Uttar Pradesh ?
(A) Gram Panchayat
(B) Kheshtra Panchayat
(C) D.R.D.A.
(D) District Planning Committee
63. Good governance by a municipal body, among other things, depends upon—
1. Committed elected represen-tatives.
2. Committed municipal bureaucracy.
3. Awakened citizenry.
4. State vigilance on its func-tioning.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four
64. Crisis of identity as a stage in the evolution of Public Admini-stration belongs to the period—
(A) 1940 – 47
(B) 1948 – 70
(C) 1971 – 90
(D) 1991 onwards
65. The District Collector
1. is a multi-functional autho-rity.
2. works on the principle of anonymity.
3. has no concern with election.
4. is an important link in the administration of the State.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 1 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 3
66. Which of the following state-ments about the scope of Public Administration are true ?
1. Posdcorb view of scope of Public Administration has its limitations.
2. Different agencies face different problems.
3. Substance of administration is different from tools of administration.
4. posdcorb view is subject-oriented.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) All the four
67. Who among the following was the Chairman of the Second Finance Commission in Uttar Pradesh ?
(A) A. P. Singh
(B) Yashpal Singh
(C) T. N. Dhar
(D) B. N. Tiwari
68. Which one of the following is the first Public Corporation created in independent India ?
(A) Life Insurance Corporation
(B) Damodar Valley Corpora-tion
(C) Food Corporation
(D) Central Warehousing Cor-poration
69. Which one of the following does not have a Municipal Corpora-tion ?
(A) Varanasi
(B) Meerut
(C) Gorakhpur
(D) Rampur
70. In a broader sense, Public Administration is related to the functions of—
1. Legislature
2. Executive
3. Government
4. Judiciary
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) All the four
71. Classical Theory of Administra-tion has been criticized because
1. it is an unscientific theory of organisation.
2. it neglected the sociological and psychological dimen-sions.
3. its principles do not have universal relevance.
4. it treats an organisation “as an open system”.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) All the four
72. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists.
List-I
(a) Laws, delegation etc.
(b) Positional theory of Autho-rity
(c) Acceptance theory of Autho-rity
(d) Types of authority classifica-tion
List-II
1. Behaviouralists
2. Max Weber
3. Classical Thinkers
4. Source of Authority
code :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 2 1 4 3
73. “Co-ordination is the beginning and the end of all organised efforts.” This statement was made by—
(A) Luther Gulick
(B) Woodrow Wilson
(C) J. D. Mooney
(D) F. M. Marx
74. Who of the following said that ‘Cabinet’ is a hyphen that joins the buckle that binds the executive and the legislative departments together ?
(A) Lowell
(B) Laski
(C) Muir
(D) Bagehot
75. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Prime Minister is the Primus enter pares in a Cabinet form of Government.
Reason (R) : His position is undermined by the dominant leaders of political parties in a Coalition Government.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
76. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : The Governor is appointed by the President of India and remains in office during his pleasure.
Reason (R) : The power to hire and fire the Governor is exclu-sively available to the President.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
77. Taylorism became popular as ‘Stakhanovit movement’ in—
(A) U.S.S.R.
(B) Germany
(C) Britain
(D) Japan
78. An organisation
1. consists of unstructured rela-tionshipsbetween individuals
2. is a system of consciously co-ordinated activities
3. always works for a purpose
4. functions with the help of an informal organisation
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four
79. Which one of the following statements about ‘Responsibility’ is NOT correct ?
(A) Responsibility is the obliga-tion of a person to achieve mutually determined results
(B) Operating responsibility is delegated to the subordinates
(C) Authority and responsibility exist independently
(D) Ultimate responsibility can-not be delegated
80. Which of the following statements about Parkinson’s Law are true ?
1. There is little or no relation-ship between the work and the size of the staff.
2. Work expands to fill the time available for its com-pletion.
3. Parkinson’s Second Law states that expenditure rises to meet income.
4. The growth of administra-tive hierarchies is dependent upon the increase in work.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) All the four
81. Which of the following state-ments about ‘Delegation’ are correct ?
1. It helps in increasing sense of responsibility among emplo-yees.
2. Implementation of critical programmes needs extensive delegation.
3. Lack of effective means of internal communication han-dicaps delegation.
4. It facilitates approval of new programmesbysubordinates.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 4
82. Consider the following state-ments—
Assertion (A) : An adminsitra-tive organisation is an open social system.
Reason (R) : Systems approach favours a flexible participative structure.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
83. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists.
List-I
(a) Charismatic authority
(b) Legalrational authority
(c) Traditional authority
(d) Legitimate authority
List-II
1. Obedience to the ruler.
2. Obedience by virtue of per-sonal trust.
3. Obedience because of adher-ence to rules and proce-dures.
4. Obedience of the command as voluntary.
code :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 1 4
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 3 4 1 2
84. The constitution of Public Accounts Committee, first sug-gested by the Webly Commission in 1896, now has members from—
(A) Lok Sabha only
(B) Rajya Sabha only
(C) Both the Houses
(D) AsnomineesofthePresident
85. Headquarters’ control over field administration is exercised through the methods of—
1. Reports
2. Administrative Manuals
3. Inspection
4. Investigation
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) All the four
86. Which of the following are deter-mined by the budget ?
1. Financial and managerial accountability of the execu-tive to the legislature.
2. Subordinate’s accountability to superior official in the executive.
3. Legislative accountability to the judiciary.
4. Government departments’ accountability to the Finance Commission.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 2 and 4
87. 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act has provided for—
1. constitutional status to Panchayati Raj bodies.
2. one-third reservation for women.
3. a separate test of subjects.
4. a separate Ministry in the Centre.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) All the four
88. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists.
List-I
(a) The Ecology of Public Administration
(b) The Golden Book of Mana-gement
(c) The Administrative State
(d) Economy and Society
List-II
1. Urwick
2. Riggs
3. Weber
4. Waldo
code :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 2 1 3 4
89. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : The role of the Collector in developmental functions has decreased during the past few years.
Reason (R) : The Collectors are preoccupied with many other things.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct expla-nation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
90. Which one of the following is not included in the Panchayati Raj System ?
(A) Zilla Panchayat
(B) Village Panchayat
(C) Nagar Panchayat
(D) Kheshtra Panchayat
91. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists.
List-I
(a) Centralization
(b) Decentralization
(c) Demerit of centralization
(d) Demerit of decentralization
List-II
1. Delay in securing action by the field officials.
2. Unsuitable for dealing with emergencies.
3. Concentration of authority at top level.
4. Transfer of authority to lower levels.
code :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) 3 4 1 2
92. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
(A) N.C.R. and Union Territory of Delhi are two entities
(B) N.C.R. and Union Territory of Delhi have same boundaries
(C) U.T. of Delhi has one single Local Government institution
(D) Development of N.C.R is the sole concern of Central Govern-ment
93. Given below are two state-ments—
Assertion (A) : The election system and working of Panchayati Raj institutions is similar in all the States.
Reason (R) : 73rd Amendment has introduced certain unifor-mity in the Panchayati Raj system.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
94. Who of the following said that co-ordination is the first princi-ple of organisation ?
(A) Henri Fayol
(B) Williams
(C) James D. Mooney
(D) Chester Barnard
95. Select the correct sequence of the following administrative events by using the code given at the end—
1. Pendleton Act, U.S.A.
2. All India Service Act.
3. Setting up of Kothari Com-mission on Recruitment Policy and Selection Method.
4. Constitution of Fulton Com-mitteeon British Civil Service.
code :
(A) 1, 2, 4, 3
(B) 2, 3, 1, 4
(C) 3, 4, 2, 1
(D) 4, 3, 1, 2
96. Which of the following state-ments are correct ?
1. The generalist-specialist con-troversy is dead now.
2. Persons with specialized educational background enter the civil service in increasing number.
3. Specialists compete with generalists in the power-game.
4. A generalist by virtue of his grooming is disliked by political executives in the Secretariat.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4
97. ‘Administrative Man’ model represents the real situation by—
(A) Organisation behaviour
(B) Decision-making behaviour
(C) Money-making behaviour
(D) Supportive behaviour
98. According to Gulick, three major factors determine the ‘span of control’ of an executive.
Which one of the following is not the factor ?
(A) Element of purpose
(B) Element of time
(C) Element of space
(D) Element of diversification of functions
99. Development Administration in India is mainly concerned with—
(A) The development of heavy industries
(B) Maintenance of law and order
(C) Economic development and promotion of social justice
(D) Redressal of public grie-vances
100. ‘Span of Control’ stands for—
1. Span of communication
2. Span of management
3. Span of units of work
4. Span of attention
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) All the four
101. Which of the following are cor-rect as measures to reduce line-staff conflicts ?
1. Clear demarcation of the responsibilities of the two.
2. Creation of opportunities for exchange of roles.
3. Laying emphasis on unity of purpose.
4. Maintenance of anonymity by staff agencies.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) All the four
102. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Talcott Parsons is known for his Structural-Func-tional Approach.
Reason (R) : Functionally dif-fused, functionally specific and intermediate societies cannot be compared.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
103. The Comparative Public Admi-nistration emphasizes that—
1. The Principles of Public Administration are seriously inadequate.
2. Any proper discipline must have complementary pure and applied aspects.
3. Organisation must be viewed as embedded in specific cultures and poli-tical settings.
4. Both the study and practice of administration are per-vasively value-loaded,
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 1 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) All the four
104. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of steps in Recruitment process ?
(A) Induction, Selection, Proba-tion and Appointment
(B) Selection, Appointment, Probation and Induction
(C) Appointment, Probation, Selection and Induction
(D) Selection, Probation, Induc-tion and Appointmen
105. Consider the following two state-ments—
Assertion (A) : Job-oriented supervisors do not permit the participation of subordinates in decision-making process.
Reason (R) : They exert little pressure on subordinates.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explana-tion of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
106. U.P. State Employees Welfare Corporation is a—
(A) Public Corporation
(B) Government Company
(C) Joint Stock Company
(D) Registered Society
107. Who of the following was the first to make a distinction bet-ween ‘power’ and ‘authority’ ?
(A) M. P. Follett
(B) Max Weber
(C) Kautilya
(D) Frank Goodnow
108. During the course of working of personnel, learning and achiev-ing administrative efficiency is known as—
(A) Informal training
(B) Formal training
(C) Post-entry training
(D) Orientation training
109. Which of the following consi-derations are taken into account while granting promotion ?
1. Merit
2. Length of Service
3. Integrity
4. Age
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four
110. Which of the following are Constitutional Commissions in India ?
1. Election Commission
2. Planning Commission
3. Human Rights Commission
4. Finance Commission
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 4
(D) 3 and 4
111. Consider the following two state-ments—
Assertion (A) : According to Chester Barnard, leadership depends upon three things – individual, followers and the conditions.
Reason (R) : According to Chester Barnard, there are three styles of leadership-trait, beha-vioural and situational.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explana-tion of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
112. ‘Greatman’ Theory of Leader-ship led to the rise of—
(A) Behavioural Theory of Leadership
(B) Situational Theory of Leadership
(C) Trait Theory of Leadership
(D) None of the above
113. The powers of Parliament in respect of passage of the Budget are enshrined in the Constitu-tion in—
(A) Art. 114
(B) Art. 113 & 203
(C) Art. 265 to 267
(D) Art. 112 to 117
114. The traditional type of budget-ing is concerned with—
(A) Program Budgeting
(B) Lump-sum Budgeting
(C) Line-item Budgeting
(D) Performance Budgeting
115. The Budget was formally intro-duced in India in—
(A) 1857
(B) 1860
(C) 1868
(D) 1919
116. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Administrative decisions in Government cannot possibly be evaluated through scientific methods.
Reason (R) : Administrative decisions in Government involve facts and value premises.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explana-tion of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
117. Which one of the following is the correct meaning of the pri-nciple of ‘Unity of Command’ ?
(A) More than one superior official should command the subordinates
(B) There should be uniformity in commands by higher officials
(C) Subordinates must receive command from only one higher official.
(D) Subordinate should follow the commands from all the superior officials
118. The classical theorists attached more importance to—
(A) Role of people in organisa-tion
(B) Structural designing of organisation
(C) Inter-personal relations in organisation
(D) Rational bureaucracy
119. Which one of the following is correct about ‘Behavioural Approach’ ?
(A) Use of traditional tools of analysis.
(B) Use of non-ecological studies.
(C) Belief in philosophical defi-nition of the term.
(D) Use of empirical studies.
120. ‘Acceptance theory of Autho-rity’ was propounded by—
(A) Chester Barnard
(B) Herbert Simon
(C) Robert Merton
(D) Elton Mayo
Answers with Explanations :
1. (D)
2. (C) Public Administration is a good creative force in the man’s welfare as its ideal. No Govern-ment can exist without admini-stration. One of the main func-tions of administration is to facilitate social change.
3. (B)Henri Fayol has suggested Gangplank as an alternative to ‘Through proper channel’ in the organisation.
4. (B) The book Public Adminis-tration in a Time of Turbulence by Dwight Waldo in (1971) talks about New Public Adminis-tration.
5. (B)Social relevance is the impor-tant feature of New Public Admi-nistration.
6. (D)Administration includes group activity, cooperation among the members of the group and coordination among the activities of participants.
7. (C)Woodrow Wilson defined Public Administration as detai-led and systematic study of law.
8. (A)AccordingtoChester Barnard Administration essentially is related to reconciliation, involv-ing individual as well as social groups.
9. (B)The correct chronological sequence of the major events in Public Administration—
1. Scientific Management Movement.
2. Hawthorne Experiments (1924-1932)
3. Michigan Research (1946).
4. Comparative Administrative Group (1960)
5. Minnowbrook Conference (1968).
10. (D)The factors responsible for the increasing importance of Public Administration in modern times are as follows—
1. Emergence of welfare state.
2. Scientific and technological advancement.
3. Rapid increase in popula-tion.
4. Economic planning.
11. (C)The distinction between Public and Private Administra-tion is narrowing down.
12. (B)Each Department-related Standing Committee of Indian Parliament consist of 45 mem-bers—30 members from Lok Sabha and 15 from Rajya Sabha.
13. (C) Characteristics of the Line Agencies include—
1. They perform functions necessary to accomplish objectives.
2. They possess authority to issue directives.
3. They come in direct contact with people.
14. (C)Comptroller Auditor General examines the account of the Union Government and submits his report to the President. He examines the accounts of the State Government and submits his report to the Governor of the concerned/state. If any House seeks any information from him he makes it available through PAC.
15. (D)All the four statement are correct.
16. (B)Herzberg calls satisfiers as intrinsic factors. His studies identifier ‘dissatisfiers’ which he calls ‘extrinsic factors’.
17. (D) y theory propounded by Douglas McGregor assumes that work is as natural as play and rest for human being. Average human being seeks responsibility and human potentialities are partially utilised by organi-sations. Emphasis on security is not inherent human charac-teristic but a consequence of experience.
18. (B) The idea of Bounded rationa-lity in decision making was developed by Herbert Simon.
19. (C) Match the following—
(A) Achievement motivation—David McClelland
(B) Expectancy theory—Victor Vrom
(C) Equity —J. Stay Adams
(D) ERG —Alderfer
20. (A)
(i) Bounded Rationality Model —Herbert Simon
(ii) Incremental Model —Lindblom
(iii) Mixed Scanning Model —Etizioni
(iv) Optimal Model —Dror
21. (B) The concept of linking pen was propounded by Likert.
22. (C) LordHewartcharacterises the powers and authority of bureau-cracy as New Despotism.
23. (B) In Barnard’s view Authority is not a command but the acceptance of the order by the juniors. Behavouralists believe that Hierarchy is the best way to command and control juniors.
24. (A) The Path-Goal theory of leadership was developed by Evans and Robert House.
25. (D) Co-ordination is the synchro-nization of efforts while co-operation is the collective action. Co-ordination results in harmo-nious and unified actions to a related objective.
26. (B) A sound recruitment policy is a must for proper and effective personnel administration. A neutral personnel system ensures efficiency in administration.
27. (C) Decentralisation of authority, fair and efficient personnel management and effective con-trolof theParliamentand Cabinet are safeguards against evils of bureaucracy.
28. (A) James Buchanan and Gordon Tullock are associated with Public Choice Theory.
29. (D)
30. (C) In Herbert Simon decision making model administrative man maximises, factual elements can be evaluated and decisions can be influenced.
31. (B) Rensis Likert developed four system of leadership.
32. (B)
33. (B) Training can both be formal and informal.
34. (D) ARC recommended creation of All India Specialist Services for Economic, Industrial, Agri-cultural and Rural Adminis-tration.
35. (A) According to Riggs ‘Sala’ represents the administrative sub-systemof a prismatic society.
36. (A)
37. (C) Recruitment to the lower ranks of Civil Services is made by Staff Selection Commission.
38. (B) The theory of Scientific Mana-gement basically deals with the best way.
39. (A) Mid-career training in the IAS and IPS helps in developing conceptual skills, professional skills, behavioural skills.
40. (C) Switzerland provides maxi-mum facilities to civil servants for participating in political authorities.
41. (C) Fulton Committee submitted its report on British Civil Services in the year of 1968.
42. (D) Article 265 of the Indian Constitution enjoins “No tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of law”.
43. (C) Project formulation looks at that the project is technically sound, that it is capable of being completed with available resour-ces and that it provides good economic return.
44. (A) In India, Accountant General is responsible for the detailed maintenance of accounts of expenditure in the Government.
45. (C) Legal-rational authority, charismatic authority and tradi-tional authority are the three types of authorities propounded by Max Weber.
46. (C)
47. (D) Mary Parker Follet believes that authority belongs to the job and stays with the job.
48. (D) All the five statements are trueaboutZero-basedbudgeting.
49. (A)
50. (B) The Constitution of India has authorised the Parliament to create a Contingency Fund of India. The Contingency Fund of India enables the Government to meet out any unforeseen expenditure.
51. (D) All the four statements about executive control over Adminis-tration are true.
52. (B) In India the Union Govern-ment is bound to resign after passing of the No-confidence motion.
53. (C) The Railway Budget was separated from the main budget of India in 1921.
54. (D) All the four statements are true about effective citizens’ control over administration.
55. (C) D.M. is responsible for Public Distribution System, implemen-tation of poverty Alleviation pro-grammes and maintenance of law and order.
56. (A) Part IX of the Constitution has the provision for Panchayati Raj.
57. (A) The Parliamentary Com-mittee on Public Undertakings was set up on the recommenda-tion of Krishna Menon Com-mittee in 1964.
58. (B) Nooruddin Committee on the training of Municipal Personnel was constituted in 1963.
59. (D) In practice, the Prime Mini-ster is very powerful at the start of his term and reinforces his strength through periodic reshuf-fles in the Council of Ministers the latter exercises raises the importance of Prime Minister’s Office.
60. (C) The Prime Minister presides over Planning Commission.
61. (D) All the four statements are true about communication.
62. (C)
63. (D) All the four statements are true about Good governance by a municipal body. Good gover-nance by a municipal body among other things depends upon committed and elected representatives, committed municipal bureaucracy, awake-ned citizenry and state vigilance on its functioning.
64. (B) Crisis of identity as stage in the evolution of Public Admi-nistration belongs to the period of 1948-1970.
65. (C) The District Collector is a multi-functional authority and is an important link in the admi-nistration of the state.
66. (C) POSDCORB view of scope of Public Administration has its limitations. Different agencies face different problems. Subs-tanance of administration is dif-ferent from tools of administra-tion.
67. (C) T.N. Dhar was the Chairman of the Second Finance Commiss-ion in Uttar Pradesh.
68. (B) Damodar Valley Corporation (Established in 1948) is the first Public Corporation created in independent India.
69. (D) The Municipal Corporations in U.P. exist at Aligarh, Agra, Allahabad, Kanpur, Ghaziabad, Gorakhpur, Barailly, Meerut, Muradabad, Lucknow, Varanasi total 11.
Note—In Jhansi and Rampur Municipal Corporations do not exit.
70. (C) In a broader sense, Public Administration is related to the functions of Legislature, Execu-tive and Judiciary.
71. (B) Classical Theory of Adminis-trationhasbeencriticisedbecause it neglected the sociological and psychological dimensions and its principles do not have universal relevance.
72. (C)
(A) Laws, delegation etc.—Source of Authority
(B) Positional Theory of Autho-rity —Classical Thinkers
(C) Acceptance theory of Autho-rity —Behaviouralists
(D) Types of authority classifica-tion —Max Weber
73. (C) According to J.D. Mooney—“Coordination is the beginning and the end of all organized efforts.”
74. (D) According to Bagehot “Cabinet is a hyphen that joins the buckle that binds the execu-tive and Legislative departments together.”
75. (B)
76. (C) The Governor is appointed by the President of India and remains in office during his pleasure.
77. (A) Taylorism became popular as Stakhanovit movement in U.S.S.R.
78. (C) An organisation is a system of consciously co-ordinated acti-vities, always works for a pur-pose : and functions with the help of an informal organisation.
79. (C) Authority and responsibility are inter-related and they co-exist.
80. (A) According to Parkinson’s Law—There is little or no relationship between the work and the size of the staff. Work expands to fill the time available for its completion.
81. (B) Delegation helps in increas-ing sense of responsibility among employees Lack of effective means of internal communica-tion handicaps delegation.
82. (B) An administrative organisa-tionisopensocial system. System approves favours a flexible par-ticipative structure.
83. (B)
84. (C) The Constitution of Public Accounts Committee first sug-gested by the Webly Commission in 1896 now has 15 members from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha.
85. (D) Headquarters control over the field administration is exercised through the methods of Reports, AdministrativeManuals, Inspection and Investi-gation.
86. (A) Budget ensures the financial and managerial accountability of the executive to the legislature. It also ensures subordinates accountability to superior official in the executive.
87. (D) 73rd Constitutional Amend-ment Act has provided for constitutional status for the Panchayati Raj, one third reser-vation for women, a separate list of subjects, a separate Ministry in the Centre.
88. (B)
89. (D) The Collectors are preoccu-pied with many other things.
90. (C) Nagar Panchayat is included in Urban local government system.
91. (D)
92. (B) NCR and Union Territories have the same boundaries.
93. (D)
94. (C) According to J.D. Mooney Co-ordination is the first pri-nciple of organisation.
95. (A)
(i) Pendleton Act U.S.A.—1883
(ii) All India Service Act—1951
(iii) Fulton Committee—1968
(iv) Kothari Commission—1974-76
96. (B) Persons with specialized educational background enter the civil service in increasing number specialists compete with Generalists in the power-game.
97. (B) Administrative Man’s model represents the real situation by decision making behaviour.
98. (A) According to Gulick three major following factors deter-mine the span of control of an executive.
(i) Element of diversification of functions.
(ii) Element of time.
(iii) Element of space.
99. (C) Development Administration in India is mainly concerned with economic development and promotion of social justice.
100. (D) Span of Control stands for span of communication, span of management, span of units of work and span of attention.
101. (C) The following measures can be taken to reduce staff line conflicts.
(1) Clear demarcation of the responsibilities of the two.
(2) Creation of opportunities for exchanging roles.
(3) Laying emphasis on unity of purpose.
102. (C) Talcott Parsons is known for his Structural-Functional Approach.
103. (D) All the four statements about Comparative Public Admi-nistrative are true.
104. (C) Sequence of steps in Recruitment process—Selection, Appointment Probation and Induction.
105. (C)
106. (B) U.P.State employees welfare corporation is a Government Company.
107. (B) 108. (A)
109. (A) Merit and length of service are the considerations which are taken into account while grant-ing promotion.
110. (C) Election Commission (Article 324) and Finance Commission (Article 280) are the Consti-tutional Commission.
111. (C) According to Barnard leadership depends upon three things—individual, followers and conditions.
112. (C) Greatman theory of leader-ship led to the rise of Trait theory of Leadership.
113. (D) The powers of Parliament in respect of passage of the Budget are enshrined in the Constitution in Art. 112 to 117.
114. (C) The traditional type of budgeting is concerned with line item budgeting.
115. (B)The budget was formally introduced in India in 1860.
116. (A) Administrative decisions in Government can not be evalua-ted through scientific methods because administrative decisions in government involve facts and value premises.
117. (C) Unity of Command means that subordinates must receive command from only one higher official.
118. (B) The classical theorists atta-ched more importance to struc-tural designing of organisation.
119. (D) Behavioural approach stands for use of empirical studies.
120. (A)
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