Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) Exam, 2008 : Public Administration

Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre.) Exam., 2008
(Held on 9-3-2008)
Public Administration : Solved Paper

1. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below :—
List-I (District)
(a) Udham Singh Nagar
(b) Tehri Garhwal
(c) Chamoli
(d) Champawat
List-II (Headquarters)
1. Champawat
2. Gopeshwar
3. Rudrapur
4. New Tehri
5. Bagheswar
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 4 2 1
(B) 2 5 3 4
(C) 1 2 4 3
(D) 4 3 5 1

2. The person for the office of the Chief Secretary in a State is chosen :
1. from among the I.A.S. Officers.
2. by a Selection Board
3. by the Chief Minister
4. by the Union Home Minister.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 1 and 4
(D) 3 only

3. The functions of the Chief Secretary include :
(A) to exercise control over the whole Secretariat
(B) to advise the Chief Minister on all matters
(C) to act as a spokesman of the State Government
(D) All of the above

4. Which one of the following statements about Audit in India is not correct ?
(A) It is a means of legislative control
(B) It is part of internal control over administration
(C) C and A.G. heads its organization
(D) C and A.G’s powers are determined by the Parliament

5. Who of the following has said about the Planning Commission “…… The Planning Commission has, in some measures, earned the reputation of being a parallel Cabinet and, sometimes, a super cabinet” ?
(A) Ashok Chandra
(B) D.R. Gadgil
(C) K. Santhanam
(D) 1st Administrative Reforms Commission

6. The C and AG of India does not audit the receipts and expenditure of :
(A) Municipal institutions
(B) State Governments
(C) Government Companies
(D) Central Government

7. Functions of the National Development Council include :
1. considering important issues of national security.
2. prescribing guidelines for preparation of the national plan.
3. assessing the resources required for implementation of the plan.
4. recommending measures necessary for achieving plan objectives.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

8. The Committee on subordinate legislation ensures that :
(A) the rules and orders do not have any intention to impose taxes
(B) legislation does not involve any expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India
(C) jurisdiction of the judiciary is not barred
(D) there is no delay in laying the legislation before the house

9. The Union Executive consists of the :
1. Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister
2. President of India
3. Central Secretariat
4. Vice President
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All of the above

10. Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian Administration ?
(A) Legacy of the Past
(B) Welfare and Liberal Administration
(C) Despotic Administration
(D) Decentralized Administration

11. Disciplinary Officer for personnel of Group ‘C’ and ‘D’ in the Central Government is :
(A) Secretary of the concerned Department
(B) President of India
(C) Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission
(D) Minister of the concerned Department

12. Which of the following organization are under the administrative control of the Union Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India ?
1. Central Vigilance Commission
2. Central Administrative Tribunal
3. Department of official language
4. Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel National Police Academy.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 4

13. Consider the following two statements :
Assertion (A) : UPSC is an independent organization.
Reason (R) : UPSC is a constitutional body.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

14. Given below are two statements :
Assertion (A) : Five Year Plans in India are approved by the National Development Council.
Reason (R) : Each and every State Chief Minister is the member of the Standing Committee of the National Development Council.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

15. Being the Principal Law Officer of the Government of India, the Attorney General
1. gives advice to the President of India on all important legal matters.
2. attend meetings of the Parliament on important issues.
3. votes in the Lok Sabha on important legal matters.
4. represents the government in the courts on very important legal matters.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) All of the above

16. Given below are different stages in problem solving :
1. Collection of relevant information
2. Identification of the problem.
3. Analysis of the information.
4. Development of alternatives.
5. Evaluation of choices.
Select the correct sequences of the above from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(B) 2, 1, 3, 4 and 5
(C) 4, 5, 2, 3 and 1
(D) 4, 1, 5, 3 and 2

17. Formal Communication usually flows in :
(A) six directions
(B) four directions
(C) three directions
(D) nine directions

18. Which one of the following is not correct among the assumptions made by a Theory ‘Y’ leader ?
(A) Expenditure of energy is undesirable.
(B) Self-direction and self-control is desirable.
(C) Self-actualization is a motivating force.
(D) Working conditions conducive for acceptance of responsibilities are desirable.

19. The book ‘Prismatic Society Revisited’ has been authored by :
(A) Robert A. Dahl
(B) Robert A. Merton
(C) Fred W. Riggs
(D) G.M. Gaus

20. Arrange the various phases of evolution of Public Administration in chronological order :
1. Politics–Administration Dichotomy
2. Crises of Identify.
3. Search for Universal Principles.
4. Era of Challenge.
5. Public Policy Perspective.
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(B) 1, 3, 4, 5 and 2
(C) 1, 3, 4, 2 and 5
(D) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 3

21. Which of the following are the British legacies ?
1. Planning Commission.
2. District Administration.
3. Civil Services.
4. Ministerial Resposibility.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 4
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 3 and 4

22. “Public Administration is detailed and systematic application of law.”
The above definition has been given by :
(A) L. D. White
(B) Luther Gullick
(C) E.N. Gladden
(D) Woodrow Wilson

23. Which of the following are the three aspects of Science of Public Administration discussed mainly in Kautilya’s Arthashastra ?
1. Principles of Public Administration
2. Principles of Financial Administration
3. Machinery of Government
4. Personnel Management
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) All of the above

24. Who of the following described recruitment as the “Corner stone of whole personnel administration” ?
(A) Glenn O. Stahl
(B) L. D. White
(C) F. A. Nigro
(D) None of the above

25. The President of India addresses his letter of resignation, when wanting to do so, to the :
(A) Chief Justice of India
(B) Vice-President
(C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) Prime Minister

26. The Mayor of a City Corporation in Uttarakhand :
(A) is elected directly by people
(B) is elected from among themselves by Corporators
(C) is elected by its Executive Committee
(D) is the nominee of the majority party in the Corporation

27. A Directorate :
1. is office of the executive head of a department.
2. functions directly under the Minister.
3. performs line functions.
4. also acts as a staff agency.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

28. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The Central Secretariat is a think tank and treasure house of vital information.
Reason (R) : The Secretariat carries out a comprehensive and detailed scrutiny of every issue.
Select correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

29. The four bases of organization as identified by Luther Gullick are :
(A) Planning, Organising, Coordinating, Controlling
(B) Objective, People, Plan, Action
(C) Plead, Persuade, Order, Punish
(D) Purpose, Process, Persons, Place

30. ‘Authority’ and ‘Responsibility’ are governed by the :
(A) Principle of coincidence
(B) Principle of correspondence
(C) Principle of compulsion
(D) Principle of co-ordination

31. ‘Span of Control’ depends upon
1. centralized system of authority
2. type of work to be supervised
3. competence of the supervisor
4. techniques of supervision
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

32. Hierarchy :
1. facilitates delegation of authority
2. establishes superior–subordinate relationships
3. acts as a channel of communication
4. facilitates operation of gang plank
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

33. A formal organization :
1. is a structure of authority
2. is a division of functions
3. consists of individuals
4. reflects social and psychological relationships
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

34. Given below are two statements :
Assertion (A) : The principle of ‘Unity of Command’ emphasizes upon one master.
Reason (R) : In complex government organizations ‘Unity of Command’ becomes easy. In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

35. Decentralization :
1. improves administrative efficiency
2. reduces stress of responsibilities at the headquarter.
3. provides for involvement of insiders in organizational functioning.
4. is responsible for cost-escalation.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

36. The traditional theory of Authority has been opposed by :
1. Max Weber
2. C.I. Bernard
3. H. Simon
4. Mooney and Reiley
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4

37. The ‘Line’ agencies :
1. perform functions according to organizational objectives.
2. have authority to take decisions and enforce them.
3. involve insiders of the organization
4. keep outsiders away from the system.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

38. Which of the following statements about ‘Delegation of authority’ are correct ?
1. It should be made to an individual.
2. It should be properly planned.
3. It should be backed by adequate resources.
4. It can be conditional.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

39. Human Relations Theory of Organization focusses on the :
1. individual
2. physical structure
3. functional structure
4. social relationships
5. spirit of participation
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 4 and 5
(D) 2, 3, 4 and 5

40. Weber’s bureaucratic model has been characterised by his critics as :
1. a machine theory
2. a closed system model
3. suitable for changing environment
4. suitable for creative jobs
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

41. Which of the following types of leadership were delineated by Max-Weber ?
1. Charismatic
2. Traditional
3. Religious
4. Legal-rational
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4

42. Which one of the following is not an intrinsic factor of job satisfaction as per the Hygiene Theory of Motivation ?
(A) Achievement
(B) Advancement
(C) Opportunities for growth
(D) Job Security

43. Fredrick Herzbgerg’s Theory of Motivation has listed some elements which are related to job content. Their number is :
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 10

44. Factors responsible for bounded rationality include :
1. dynamic nature of objectives
2. imperfect information
3. imcompetence for analysis
4. time constraints
5. personal values
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(D) 1, 2, 4 and 5

45. Factors taken into consideration while using ‘motivation’ as a function of management include :
1. goal
2. physiological deficiency
3. psychological need
4. technique to be used
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

46. “A communication that cannot be understood can have no authority.” The above statement is attributed
to :
(A) Ordway Tead
(B) C.I. Bernard
(C) Millet
(D) Peter Drucker

47. The aspects of organizational communication include :
1. internal communication
2. external communication
3. inter-personal communication
4. intra-personal communication
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

48. Which one of the following is not a stage in Simon’s model of decision making ?
(A) Intelligence
(B) Design
(C) Choice
(D) Participation

49. Which one of the following as qualities of leadership, as mentioned by Barnard is correct ?
(A) Vitality and Endurance
(B) Decisiveness
(C) Persuasiveness and Responsibility
(D) All of the above

50. Which one of the following statements about Decision-making is not correct ?
(A) Every decision is based upon two premises
(B) A factual premise cannot be disproved
(C) A value premise can be tested
(D) Ends and means have their importance

51. Theory ‘Y’ is connected with :
(A) Democratic leadership style
(B) Autocratic leadership style
(C) Laissez-faire leadership style
(D) None of the above

52. Who of the following developed Contingency Theory of Leadership ?
(A) Fred E. Feidler
(B) Likert
(C) Simon
(D) Robert Dahl

53. Robert T. Goelembioski has considered as transitional incident to :
(A) Private Administration
(B) Public Administration
(C) Neo Public Administration
(D) New Public Administration

54. Who of the following did not criticise Politics-administration dichotomy of Woodrow Wilson ?
(A) L. D. White
(B) Paul H. Appleby
(C) Marshall E. Dimock
(D) Nicholas Henry

55. Which one of the following statements is correct about New Public Administration ?
(A) It believes in Science of Public Administration
(B) It focusses on Social Administration
(C) It gives priority to the study of structural aspect of organization
(D) It believes in collective decision-making

56. Third phase (1938–1947) of the development of Public Administration is marked by :
1. emphasis on the practical study of Public Administration.
2. emphasis on human behaviour in an organization.
3. doubt regarding non-universality of the principles of Public Administration.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) only 3
(D) 2 and 3

57. Who of the following differentiated Politics and Administration by saying that ‘Politics has to do policies or expression of the State will’ and ‘Administration has to do with the execution of the policies’ ?
(A) Peter Self
(B) Woodrow Wilson
(C) Frank Goodnow
(D) Dwight Waldo

58. New Public Administration lays emphasis on :
(A) relevance, values, democracy and change
(B) relevance, values, equity and change
(C) relevance, values, efficiency and change
(D) relevance, efficiency, equity and change

59. ‘Public Administration is the Art and Science of Management as applied to affairs of the State.’ Who of the following said this ?
(A) Woodrow Wilson
(B) L.D. White
(C) Frank Marini
(D) Dwight Waldo

60. “Public Administration is detailed and systematic execution of law.” Who of the following has said this ?
(A) L.D. White
(B) Luther Gullick
(C) E.N. Gladden
(D) Woodrow Wilson

61. About the significance of Public Administration who of the following said “The Administrative process is universal” ?
(A) Ordway Tead
(B) Henri Fayol
(C) H. Finer
(D) D. Waldo

62. “Public Administration is characterized by red-tape while Private Administration is free from it.” The statement was made by :
(A) Herbert Simon
(B) Paul H. Appleby
(C) Peter Drucker
(D) Josia Stamp

63. The Minnobrook Conference held in 1988 laid emphasis on :
1. Leadership
2. Constitutional and Legal perspective
3. Policy perspective
4. Social equity and change
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All of the above

64. The Conference on New Public Administration in 1960s was held under the patronage of :
(A) Robert T. Golembiewaski
(B) Frank Marini
(C) Fredrickson
(D) Dwight Waldo

65. Consider the following :
Assertion (A) : Comparative Public Administration is crosscultural and cross-national in character.
Reason (R) : Its goal became unattainable.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
Correct :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

66. Ecological approach undertakes studies of :
1. dynamics of interaction
2. political environment
3. social realities
4. influence of administrative system
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

67. Which of the following decisionmaking approach is usually advocated by the Policy makers for urban community development in India ?
(A) Mixed approach
(B) Public choice approach
(C) Contingency approach
(D) Participative approach

68. Who of the following scholar/scholars point out that bureaucratic responsibility has to be seen in terms of accountability and ethical behaviour ?
(A) Fesler and Kettle
(B) Rosen
(C) Romzek and Dubnick
(D) Mohit Bhattacharya

69. Civil Servants are trained through :
1. foundation courses
2. on the job programmes
3. field exposures
4. refresher programmes
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

70. The Joint Consultative Machinery in India was established on the recommendation of :
(A) First Pay Commission
(B) Second Pay Commission
(C) Third Pay Commission
(D) Fourth Pay Commission

71. Which one of the following reports laid down the traditional concept of Civil Service neutrality in Britain ?
(A) Masterman Committee Report
(B) Hoover Commission Report
(C) Northcote-Trevelyan Report
(D) Fulton Committee Report

72. The country which practices position classification in Civil Service is :
(A) U.K.
(B) U.S.A.
(C) France
(D) Germany

73. The final work of the Union Public Service Commission in recruitment process is :
(A) Selection
(B) Appointment
(C) Certification
(D) Placement

74. Which one of the following countries permits the right to strike to Civil Servants ?
(A) U.K.
(B) Germany
(C) France
(D) U.S.A.

75. Which one of the following illustrates the nature of traditional concept of Civil Service Neutrality ?
(A) Committed
(B) Positive minded
(C) Non-Partisan
(D) Impartial

76. Which one of the following Committee/Commission was associated during British rule with the Civil Services in India ?
(A) Wheeler Commission
(B) Maxwell Committee
(C) Risley Commission
(D) Islington Commission

77. Which of the following statements about Neutrality of Civil Service are correct ?
1. The Civil servants should remain non-political.
2. It developed as a tradition in the U.S.A.
3. The demand for committed bureaucracy has created confusion.
4. The developing countries bureaucracy remained depoliticised.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

78. The advantages of rank classification include :
1. it introduces an element of flexibility.
2. it is more suitable for generalist cadre.
3. it helps in applying the principle of equal pay for equal work.
4. it facilitates matching job requirements with incumbents’s qualifications.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

79. Which one of the following about position classification is not correct ?
(A) It is also known as duties classification.
(B) It is concerned with the person holding the position.
(C) Position acts as the basic unit.
(D) It helps in developing common practices.

80. The correct sequence of the process adopted in recruitment is :
(A) Advertisement, Selection, Appointment, Probation
(B) Advertisement, Selection, Probation, Training.
(C) Advertisement, Appointment, Training, Probation.
(D) Advertisement, Selection, Posting, Probation.

81. The Separation of Accounts and Audit took place in India in the year :
(A) 1950
(B) 1961
(C) 1976
(D) 1990

82. Which one of the following about Accounts is not correct ?
(A) They are statements of facts relating to money.
(B) They are recored to show transactions.
(C) They reveal the financial condition of the organisation.
(D) The cannot be manipulated.

83. Preparation of performance budget was introduced in India on the recommendation of :
(A) Estimates Committee
(B) Appleby Report
(C) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(D) Administrative Reforms Commission

84. To enhance legislative literacy and administrative responsibility, the budget system should accept :
(A) Zero Based Budgeting
(B) P.P.B.S.
(C) Performance Budgeting
(D) Professional Scrutiny by experts

85. Which one of the following statements about Budget is not correct ?
(A) It is a policy document
(B) It is merely a tool of resource mobilisation
(C) It is a tool of planning and control
(D) It is a statement of income and expenditure

86. Which one of the following is not a part of the Execution of Budget ?
(A) Release of grants
(B) Feedback on expenditure
(C) Audit of expenditure
(D) Reappropriation, when required

87. Audit :
1. is a means of legislative control.
2. is usually regulatory in nature.
3. is concerned with the propriety of expenditure.
4. can be performance related.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

88. The stages involved in the enactment of the Budget include :
1. Presentation
2. Voting on demands for grants
3. General discussion
4. Passing of Financial Bills
5. Passing of Appropriation Bill
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the above five stages ?
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(B) 1, 3, 2, 5 and 4
(C) 1, 3, 4, 2 and 5
(D) 1, 2, 5, 4 and 3

89. Non-votable items of expenditure, by the Parliament, include :
1. emoluments and allowances of the President.
2. emoluments and allowances of Vice-President.
3. salary and allowances of C and A.G.
4. salary and allowances of the Chief Vigilance Commissioner Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4

90. The Railway Budget was separated from the Central Budget in the year :
(A) 1921
(B) 1922
(C) 1925
(D) 1926

91. In the process of passing the budget, which one of the following is not in the purview of the Legislature?
(A) Give assent to the demand
(B) Reduce the demand
(C) Refuse the demand
(D) Increase and demand

92. The studies of Comparative Public Administration came to decline because :
(A) they were involved in trivialities
(B) they exhibited arrogance of developed countries
(C) they indulged in comparison of cultures
(D) they were over shadowed by Fred Riggs

93. Which one of the following is not included in the types of leadership, as distinguished by M.P. Follett ?
(A) Leadership of position
(B) Leadership of personality
(C) Leadership of learning
(D) Leadership of function

94. The Comparative Administration Group (CAG) in U.S.A. was formed in the year :
(A) 1959
(B) 1960
(C) 1961
(D) 1962

95. Advantages of ‘Right to Information’ as a means of Citizens’ control over administration include :
1. Administration becomes more accountable to people.
2. It increases the gap between administration and people.
3. It reduces chances of abuse of authority.
4. It reduces scope for corruption in administration.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

96. Who of the following said :
‘I always consider the question time in the House is one of the finest examples of Democracy ?’
(A) E. Attlee
(B) W. Wilson
(C) Churchill
(D) Chamberlin

97. Which one of the following is the tool of Executive Control over Public Administration ?
(A) Civil Service Code
(B) Budget
(C) Hierarchical system
(D) All of the above

98. The subject of ‘Ensuring transparency and Right to Information’ was included in the agenda of the Chief Ministers’ Conference in the year :
(A) 1996
(B) 1997
(C) 1998
(D) 2002

99. The mechanisms for citizen’s control over administration include :
1. Ombudsman system
2. Central Vigilance Commission
3. General elections
4. Pressure Groups
5. Right to Information
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(D) 2, 3, 4 and 5

100. Administrative organisations are mainly responsible to :
1. Legislature
2. Judiciary
3. Citizens
4. Media
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 1, 3 and 4

101. Which one of the following is the example of executive control over administration ?
(A) Rules of financial transactions framed by Finance ministry for agencies responsible for expenditure
(B) Issue of ordinance by the President of India
(C) Audit by C and G
(D) Approval of Budget proposals by the President of India.

102. Which one of the following is under the control of the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions ?
(A) National Academy of Administration, Mussoorie
(B) Central Vigilance Commission
(C) Joint Consultative Machinery
(D) All the above

103. What is the number of membership including President of the Committee on Subordinate Legislation of Parliament ?
(A) 12
(B) 15
(C) 22
(D) 30

104. The rules and regulations framed by the administrative authorities can be declared illegal by the courts :
(A) If they violate the limitation inherent in the parent Act
(B) If they violate the provisions of the constitution
(C) If the parent Act violates the provisions of the constitution
(D) In all above conditions

105. The corruption has increased manifold because :
1. There is a close nexus among the politicians, bureaucrates and criminals.
2. The cost of getting scotfree is very high.
3. Reduced fear of punishment.
4. Involvement of higher officials in the corruption.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) All the above

106. The tools of legislative control over administration are :
1. debates and discussions in the House.
2. censure motion against the government.
3. no confidence motion against the government.
4. consideration and passage of budget by the House.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) All of the above

107. Which one of the following statements about the Cabinet Secretary is not correct ?
(A) He is head of the Civil Service
(B) He interacts directly with the bureaucracy in the ministries
(C) He acts as a deity in the annual conference of Chief Secretaries
(D) He presides over the meeting of Secretaries in the Central Government

108. Under the Indian Constitution, the CAG is :
(A) responsible only to the Executive head
(B) responsible to both Parliament and Executive
(C) responsible only to Parliament
(D) independent of both Parliament and the Executive

109. Which of the following is/are not mentioned in the Constitution of India ?
1. Council of Ministers
2. Collective responsibility
3. Resignation of Ministers
4. Office of the Deputy Prime Minister
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 3

110. Assessment of the implementation of national plan from time to time is the function of :
(A) Programme Evaluation Organisation
(B) National Sample Survey Organisation
(C) Union Finance Commission
(D) Union Ministry of Programme Implementation

111. A large number of cases against officials in the courts pertain to :
(A) error of procedure
(B) lack of jurisdiction
(C) error of facts
(D) abuse of discretion

112. Which of the following organization in the centre basically operate as staff agencies ?
1. Ministry of Finance
2. Union Public Service Commission
3. Directorate General of supplies and Disposal
4. Planning Commission of India.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 1, 3 and 4

113. Comptroller and Auditor General of India :
1. is appointed by the President
2. submits his report to the Parliament
3. controls the financial system of the country
4. upholds the Constitution in respect of financial administration
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

114. Which of the following about President of India are correct ?
1. He/She should not be a member of the Parliament.
2. He/She is a constituent part of Parliament.
3. He/She should be eligible for election as a Lok Sabha member.
4. He/She is directly elected by the people.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All of the above

115. The Civil Service in India :
1. is governed by the norm of anonymity.
2. is not accountable to the Parliament.
3. is protected by the Minister concerned in all kinds of acts.
4. remains accountable to the Minister concerned.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) All the four

116. The relationship between political executive and permanent executive is based on :
(A) ability of Minister
(B) capability of Civil Servant
(C) mutual respect and confidence between Ministers and Civil Servants
(D) All of the above

117. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A) : The Constitution authorises the Parliament to create a new All-India Service.
Reason (R) : Rajya Sabha takes a decision on the basis of recommendation of Lok Sabha in this regard.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

118. The system of open competition as the method of recruitment to Indian Civil Services was introduced
by the :
(A) Charter Act of 1853
(B) Charter Act of 1833
(C) Regulatory Act of 1773
(D) Charter Act of 1754

119. Which of the following departments in the Uttarakhand Government have a Directorate under it ?
1. Education
2. Health
3. Home
4. Agriculture
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

120. The Police force of a district maintains law and order under the general supervision of :
(A) Home Minister of the State
(B) Law Minister of the State
(C) Collector and Magistrate of the District
(D) S.P. of the district

Answers :
1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (B) 5. (D)
6. (A) 7. (C) 8. (*) All the options given in the question are correct. The committee on subordinate legislation performs all the four function. It appears that the question is incomplete as the ‘codes’ are not given below.
9. (A) 10. (C) 11. (A) 12. (C) 13. (A) 14. (C) 15. (C)
16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (A) 19. (C) 20. (C) 21. (C) 22. (D) 23. (C) 24. (A) 25. (B)
26. (A) 27. (D) 28. (A) 29. (D) 30. (B) 31. (C) 32. (B) 33. (A) 34. (C) 35. (A)
36. (B) 37. (B) 38. (C) 39. (C) 40. (A) 41. (B) 42. (D) 43. (A) 44. (C) 45. (C)
46. (B) 47. (B) 48. (D) 49. (D) 50. (C) 51. (A) 52. (A) 53. (D) 54. (A) 55. (B)
56. (D) 57. (C) 58. (B) 59. (D) 60. (D) 61. (B) 62. (A) 63. (B) 64. (D) 65. (B)
66. (B) 67. (D) 68. (D) 69. (D) 70. (B) 71. (A) 72. (B) 73. (C) 74. (C) 75. (D)
76. (D) 77. (B) 78. (A) 79. (B) 80. (A) 81. (C) 82. (D) 83. (D) 84. (C) 85. (B)
86. (C) 87. (D) 88. (B) 89. (B) 90. (A) 91. (D) 92. (B) 93. (C) 94. (B) 95. (C)
96. (A) 97. (A) 98. (B) 99. (C) 100. (A) 101. (A) 102. (A) 103. (B) 104. (D) 105. (C)
106. (D) 107. (B) 108. (C) 109. (C) 110. (A) 111. (D) 112. (C) 113. (C) 114. (B) 115. (C)
116. (C) 117. (C) 118. (A) 119. (D) 120. (C)

Uttarakhand PCS (Pre.) Exam, 2006 : Geography

Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre.) Exam., 2006
Geography : Solved Paper
(Held on 9-3-2008)

1. The longest inland waterways in the world is—
(A) Mississippi river system
(B) The Great Lakes
(C) St. Lawrence
(D) River Rhine

2. Which one of the following countries has the highest average of road length on per thousand square kilometres of area basis ?
(A) India
(B) Japan
(C) U.S.A.
(D) France

3. Who said, “Similar locations lead to similar mode of life” ?
(A) F. Ratzel
(B) Carl Ritter
(C) Alexander Von Humboldt
(D) E. C. Semple

4. The Red Indians or American Indians belong to the—
(A) Mongolian race
(B) Caucasoid race
(C) Australoid race
(D) Negrito race

5. Which of the following States was formed exclusively by the migrants in the 20th Century ?
(A) Maldives
(B) Mauritius
(C) Israel
(D) Myanmar

6. Which one of the following regions practising most intensive subsistance farming ?
(A) Pampas region
(B) Murray-Darling Basin
(C) California Valley
(D) Monsoon Asia

7. The ‘Hottentots’ are the—
(A) Pigmies of Congo basin
(B) Negrito of Sri Lanka having brown colour
(C) Yellow skin colour of South-West Africa
(D) Negritoes of Eastern-Africa

8. The determining factor of population region is—
(A) Birth rate
(B) Death rate
(C) Density of population
(D) Above all

9. By which theory does the population increase geometrically ?
(A) Optimum Population Theory
(B) Malthusian Theory of Population
(C) Logestic Curve Theory
(D) Theory of Demographic Transition

10. Hunting Instrument Harpoon is used by—
(A) Bushman
(B) Eskimo
(C) Papuan
(D) Vedda

11. The leading sulphur producing country in the world is—
(A) U.S.A.
(B) Russia
(C) Japan
(D) U.K.

12. ‘Craal’ is a house of—
(A) Bushman
(B) Beddo
(C) Masai
(D) Semang

13. Optimum Population Theory is propounded by—
(A) Edwin Cannon
(B) Malthus
(C) Clarke
(D) Talber

14. What is ‘Karaganda’ ?
(A) An animal
(B) A mountain
(C) A coalfield
(D) An ocean deep

15. What is ‘Hebrew’ ?
(A) An animal
(B) A language
(C) A river
(D) A plant

16. Which of the following is called the Plateau Continent ?
(A) South America
(B) Asia
(C) Africa
(D) Europe

17. Which industry is most important in South-West Asia ?
(A) Iron and Steel Industry
(B) Petro-chemical Industry
(C) Heavy Engineering Industry
(D) Textile Industry

18. In general the most fertile layer of the soil is—
(A) ‘B’ Layer
(B) ‘A’ Layer
(C) ‘C’ Layer
(D) None of the above

19. The most important factor to control the growth and types of forests is—
(A) Soil types
(B) Climate
(C) Underground water
(D) Soil fertility

20. ‘Mediterranean Sea Forests’ are found in the areas—
(A) Between 10°N to 10°S latitudes
(B) Between 20°N to 30°N latitudes
(C) Between 30° to 45° latitudes in the western parts of continents
(D) Between 60° to 65° latitudes

21. The maximum mica producing country is—
(A) India
(B) China
(C) Canada
(D) Japan

22. Which region is called the ‘Rice Bowl of China’ ?
(A) Hwang Ho Valley
(B) Yangtse Basin
(C) Sinkiang
(D) Chunking

23. Tropical cyclones are known as Hurricanes in—
(A) Philippines
(B) Australia
(C) Bay of Bengal
(D) West Indies

24. Whose names are associated with the ‘Concept of Geosyncline’ ?
(A) Penk and Davis
(B) Woolridge and Morgan
(C) Hall and Dana
(D) Woolridge and La Pichon

25. Which is the second major population cluster of the world ?
(A) Western Europe
(B) South Asia
(C) Anglo-America
(D) Nile Delta

26. Bushman are the dwellers of—
(A) Congo Basin
(B) Amazon Basin
(C) Kalahari
(D) Sri Lanka

27. A graph showing the relationship between rainfall and temperature for all months of a year for a place is called—
(A) Climograph
(B) Climatograph
(C) Hythergraph
(D) None of the above

28. The actual heights of places above the sea level are shown by—
(A) Spot heights
(B) Contour
(C) Hachure
(D) Hill shading

29. At the time of neap tide the position of the Earth is—
(A) Quadrature
(B) Conjunction
(C) Opposition
(D) Syzygy

30. Average depth of continental shelf is—
(A) 100 Fathoms
(B) 200 Fathoms
(C) 300 Fathoms
(D) 400 Fathoms

31. If temperature is more, then air pressure is—
(A) More
(B) Medium
(C) Low
(D) Very low

32. By which Relative humidity is calculated ?
(A) Simple thermometer
(B) Maximum and minimum thermometer
(C) Dry and wet bulb thermometer
(D) Barometer

33. ‘White Coal’ is called—
(A) Petroleum
(B) Hydro-electricity
(C) Lignite
(D) All of the above

34. The formation of ‘yardang’ is due to—
(A) Erosion by wind
(B) Deposition by wind
(C) Transportation by wind
(D) None of the above

35. Which of the following rivers has a cuspate delta ?
(A) Mississippi
(B) Niger
(C) Nile
(D) Tiber

36. Grand Bank is situated in—
(A) Atlantic Ocean
(B) Pacific Ocean
(C) Indian Ocean
(D) Arctic Sea

37. “Geography is orderly knowledge of the diversity of the Earth as the World of man.” Whose statement is this ?
(A) Hetner
(B) Brunches
(C) Broek
(D) Ptolemy

38. Thornthwaite’s climate classification base is—
(A) Air pressure
(B) Vegetation
(C) Temperature
(D) Rainfall

39. Which of the following is cultural landscape ?
(A) City
(B) Crater
(C) Waterfall
(D) Alluvial Fan

40. Between which of the following Latitudes is the Sudan type climate found ?
(A) 5° N to 5° S
(B) 5° NS to 20° NS
(C) 8° NS to 30° NS
(D) 20° NS to 30° NS

41. Name the wind which changes its direction according to the weather.
(A) Chinook
(B) Loo
(C) Monsoon
(D) Mistral

42. By which is the Blind Valley formed ?
(A) Glacier
(B) River
(C) Sea-waves
(D) Underground water

43. Sand is formed by the process of—
(A) Corrosion
(B) Attrition
(C) Solution
(D) Deflation

44. Which of the following is called ‘Ring of Fire’ ?
(A) Circum-Pacific Ocean Belt
(B) Indian Ocean Belt
(C) Atlantic Ocean Belt
(D) Arctic Belt

45. Select the place that is not matched with others.
(A) Kandla
(B) Vishakhapattanam
(C) Kolkata
(D) Kanpur

46. The actual oldest folded mountain in India is—
(A) Himalaya
(B) Satpura
(C) Nilgiri
(D) Aravalli

47. The State with highest number of inhabited village is—
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Orissa
(D) Bihar

48. Sex-ratio in Uttarakhand is—
(A) 900
(B) 964
(C) 1001
(D) 982

49. Which of the following tribes does not belong to Uttarakhand ?
(A) Vanraji
(B) Tharu
(C) Gond
(D) Boxa

50. Who was the writer of the book “A Hundred Years of Geography” ?
(A) T. W. Freeman
(B) F. Ratzel
(C) R. L. Singh
(D) E. Kant

51. The concept of Neo-determinism was propounded by—
(A) J. Brunhes
(B) E. Huntington
(C) F. Ratzel
(D) G. Taylor

52. Which of the following is different from other three ?
(A) Ptolemy
(B) St. Beatus
(C) Idrisi
(D) Abu Zaid

53. Which of the following is not a base for Racial classification ?
(A) Shape of nose
(B) Skin colour
(C) Language
(D) Cross-section of hair

54. ‘Location’ means—
(A) Site
(B) Situation
(C) Site and situation
(D) None of the above

55. Urban villages are generally found in—
(A) U.S.A.
(B) China
(C) India
(D) Sri Lanka

56. Nebular Hypothesis was propounded by—
(A) Kant
(B) Laplace
(C) Molten
(D) Hoyal

57. The uppermost layer of the atmosphere is called—
(A) Ozonosphere
(B) Ionosphere
(C) Troposphere
(D) Stratosphere

58. ‘The present is the key to the past.’ Who said this ?
(A) W. D. Thornbury
(B) James Hutton
(C) R. J. Small
(D) S. Schumm

59. ‘Landscape is a function of structure, process and time.’ With whom this statement is related ?
(A) W. Penk
(B) O. D. Von Engel
(C) A. N. Strahler
(D) W. M. Davis

60. The Central Meridian indicated by a line half the length of the equator represents—
(A) Mercator projection
(B) Polyconic projection
(C) Bonne projection
(D) Mollweide projection

61. ‘India is par excellence a country of villages.’ Who said this ?
(A) Brunhes
(B) Blache
(C) Finch and Trewartha
(D) Huntington

62. Which of the following is not important in the classification of air masses ?
(A) Temperature
(B) Humidity
(C) Source region
(D) Pressure

63. Which of the following linear scale is suitable for reading a distance of 5 km, 10 m and 100 cm ?
(A) Comparative scale
(B) Plain scale
(C) Diagonal scale
(D) Time scale

64. A person starts walking towards East and after some distance, takes a left turn and continuous again, after some distance, he turns right and again to his left and continuous walking. In which direction he is walking now ?
(A) West
(B) East
(C) South
(D) North

65. Silent Valley Agitation is related to—
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Uttarakhand
(C) U.S.A.
(D) Kerala

66. El Nino is related to—
(A) Bone
(B) Film
(C) Climate
(D) Plant

67. Indian Daily Weather Report is published from—
(A) Delhi
(B) Pune
(C) Dehradun
(D) Kolkata

68. Where is agriculture called Ladang ?
(A) Sri Lanka
(B) Malaysia
(C) India
(D) Myanmar

69. The maximum production of cotton industry is in—
(A) Gujarat
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Uttar Pradesh

70. When did the rail transport start in India ?
(A) 1951
(B) 1853
(C) 1961
(D) 1890

71. Which of the following is the largest coal field in India ?
(A) Jharia
(B) Raniganj
(C) Bokaro
(D) Giridih

72. Ganga is navigable between—
(A) Haridwar and Kanpur
(B) Allahabad and Varanasi
(C) Patna and Kolkata
(D) Allahabad and Haldia

73. The upper course of Damodar river occupies a—
(A) Rift Valley
(B) Synclinal Valley
(C) Proded Valley
(D) Depositional Valley

74. Which of the following dam is not meant for irrigation ?
(A) Bhawani Sagar
(B) Sivasamundram
(C) Krishnaraja Sagar
(D) Bhakra Nangal

75. As per 2001 Census of India, the number of million cities is—
(A) 25
(B) 30
(C) 35
(D) 40

76. What is ‘Gomia’ in Jharkhand known for ?
(A) Coal fields
(B) Manganese mining
(C) Fertilizer plant
(D) Explosive factory

77. Xerophytic vegetation is a characteristic feature of—
(A) Chota Nagpur Plateau
(B) Khasi Hills
(C) Eastern Ghats
(D) Kachchh

78. According to 2001 Census, the density of population in Uttarakhand is—
(A) 160 persons per sq km
(B) 158 persons per sq km
(C) 157 persons per sq km
(D) 159 persons per sq km

79. Which of the following rivers does not originate nearby the Manasarowar Lake ?
(A) Indus
(B) Satluj
(C) Chenab
(D) Brahmaputra

80. ‘E’ type climate in India is found in—
(A) Himalaya
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Thar
(D) Konkan

81. The dominants rural settlement pattern along the coastal region of Kerala is known as—
(A) Clustered
(B) Compact
(C) Nucleated
(D) Dispersed

82. ‘Mangrove Vegetation’ in India is most extensively found in—
(A) Malabar Coast
(B) The Sunderbans
(C) The Rann of Kachchh
(D) Coastal Orissa

83. In which State of India, the Bhilai Iron and Steel Plant is located ?
(A) Jharkhand
(B) Orissa
(C) Bihar
(D) Chhattisgarh

84. The earlier name of the present Jim Corbett National Park established in 1936 was—
(A) Garhwal National Park
(B) Hely National Park
(C) Ramganga National Park
(D) Happy National Park

85. Which State of India has maximum percentage of land under forest ?
(A) Mizoram
(B) Meghalaya
(C) Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Himachal Pradesh

86. Where the First Biosphere Reserve of India is situated ?
(A) Nanda Devi
(B) Sundarban
(C) Great Nicobar
(D) Nilgiri

87. According to the 2001 Census, the sex-ratio of India is—
(A) 927
(B) 933
(C) 930
(D) 940

88. The source area of Alaknanda river is—
(A) Milam Glacier
(B) Poting Glacier
(C) Satopanth Glacier
(D) Bandarpunch Glacier

89. In which district of Uttarakhand has the lowest density of population ?
(A) Uttarkashi
(B) Chamoli
(C) Pithoragarh
(D) Tehri Garhwal

90. By which tribe marriage is called Bapla ?
(A) Santhal
(B) Gond
(C) Tharu
(D) Bhil

91. ‘Gangotri’ is situated on the bank of river—
(A) Alaknanda
(B) Bhagirathi
(C) Pindar
(D) Mandakini

92. In the Garhwal Himalaya, the ‘Bugyal’ is called for—
(A) Mountain slope
(B) Coniferous forests
(C) High altitude pasture lands
(D) Snow fields

93. In which year Tata Iron and Steel Company (TISCO) established by Jamshedji Tata began its production ?
(A) 1910
(B) 1911
(C) 1920
(D) 1921

94. Out of these which town has more urban population ?
(A) Kashipur
(B) Rishikesh
(C) Roorkee
(D) Rudrapur

95. Date on which a severe Earthquake occurred in and around ‘Chamoli’.
(A) March 28, 1999
(B) April 28, 1998
(C) June 08, 1997
(D) March 20, 1996

96. The term ‘Khadar’ means—
(A) New alluvial soils
(B) Dry sandy soils
(C) Old alluvial soils
(D) Semi-black soils

97. ‘Pushpawati’ National Park is located in the district of—
(A) Rudraprayag
(B) Uttar Kashi
(C) Chamoli
(D) Pithoragarh

98. The year on which Rajaji National Park was established—
(A) 1986
(B) 1980
(C) 1990
(D) 1983

99. Which district of Uttarakhand State is the largest in size ?
(A) Chamoli
(B) Uttar Kashi
(C) Almora
(D) Pithoragarh

100. Which one of the following districts of Uttarakhand is smallest in size ?
(A) Champawat
(B) Haridwar
(C) Bageshwar
(D) Rudraprayag

101. Which one of the following is most abundant in Kerala ?
(A) Thorium
(B) Uranium
(C) Mica
(D) Monazite

102. In terms of geographical size, the position of India in the world is—
(A) Sixth
(B) Seventh
(C) Fifth
(D) Tenth

103. Which of the following is not a mountain ?
(A) Mahabaleshwar
(B) Kalusubai
(C) Salher
(D) Garsopa

104. In between which latitudes of the following, lies the beet of ‘Horse Latitude’ ?
(A) 5° N and 5° S
(B) 30°N–35°N—30°S – 35°S
(C) 60°N–65°N—60°S–65°S
(D) 70°N–75°N—70°S–75°S

105. What is the unit of measuring noise ?
(A) Decimel
(B) Noisemel
(C) Decibel
(D) Mesibel

106. What is the main occupation of the people of Taiga Region ?
(A) Hunting
(B) Cattle rearing
(C) Food gathering
(D) Lumbering

107. Which among the following countries is the largest importer of Iron-ore ?
(A) Germany
(B) Sweden
(C) Japan
(D) Australia

108. From which Lake does the river Nile rise ?
(A) Victoria
(B) Rudolf
(C) Nyasa
(D) Edward

109. What is the function of ‘Locks’ in Panama Canal ?
(A) Traffic control
(B) Raising the level of water
(C) Minimize shipping
(D) Avoid silting

110. The largest oil field of Iraq is—
(A) Al-Faw
(B) Haft-Sulaiman
(C) Kirkuk
(D) Khor-al-Amaya

111. Which South African race is called ‘a dying race’ ?
(A) Bantus
(B) Zulus
(C) Masai
(D) Pygmies

112. The leading producer of Jute in the world is—
(A) Bangladesh
(B) United Kingdom
(C) India
(D) Philippines

113. The leading importer of natural rubber in the world is—
(A) U.S.A.
(B) Canada
(C) Russia
(D) Germany

114. Which one of the following African countries is not landlocked ?
(A) Mali
(B) Zambia
(C) Chad
(D) Libya

115. In which of the following mountain range of South Africa are the world’s greatest gold fields located ?
(A) Raggeveldberg
(B) Groot Swartberg
(C) Witwatersrand
(D) Darkensburg

116. Tarim basin of Sikiang experience strong heat wave causing discomfort during early spring. The wind is popularly known as—
(A) Karaburan
(B) Kotabatic
(C) Chinook
(D) Fohn

117. For his model of industrial location, Weber makes use of—
(A) Isogons
(B) Isophenes
(C) Isodapanes
(D) Isotaches

118. In Christaller Central Place Theory for organisation of settlements, K = 4 denotes—
(A) Transport principles
(B) Market principles
(C) Administrative principles
(D) Economic principles

119. Which country among the following is the highest proportion of its electricity generation by nuclear plants ?
(A) U.S.A.
(B) U.K.
(C) France
(D) Germany

120. Which one of the following geographers has developed the idea of the ‘Mobility Transition’ ?
(A) L. A. Kosinski
(B) E. G. Ravenstein
(C) E. S. Lee
(D) W. Zelinskys

Answers with Hints
1. (A) Mississippi river system is the longest inland waterways in the world because it includes the waterways of Missouri, Ohio, Tennessee Arkansas and other tributaries of Mississippi river.
2. (C) 3. (D) 4. (A) 5. (B)
6. (D) The region which practices most intensive subsistence farming is Monsoon Asia.
7. (D) 8. (C) 9. (B)
10. (B) Hunting Instrument Harpoon is used by ‘Eskimo’.
11. (A) 12. (C) 13. (A)
14. (C) ‘Karaganda’ is renowned coalfield of Kazakhstan.
15. (B) ‘Hebrew’ is the language of people of Israel.
16. (C) 17. (B) 18. (B) 19. (B) 20. (C)
21. (A) The maximum mica producing country is ‘India’.
22. (B)
23. (D) Tropical cyclones are known as Hurricanes in West Indies.
24. (C)
25. (A) The first major population cluster of the world is South Asia and second is Western Europe.
26. (C) 27. (C) 28. (A) 29. (A) 30. (A) 31. (C)
32. (C) Relative humidity is calculated by dry and wet bulb thermometer.
33. (B) 34. (A) 35. (D) 36. (A) 37. (C) 38. (D)
39. (A) City is cultural landscape whereas Crater, Waterfall and Alluvial fan are physical landscapes.
40. (B) 41. (C) 42. (D) 43. (B)
44. (A) ‘Circum-Pacific Ocean Belt’ is called ‘Ring of Fire’ because of vocanic erruption zone.
45. (D) 46. (D) 47. (B) 48. (B)
49. (C) Vanraji, Tharu and Boxa are the tribes of Uttarakhand. Gond is of Chhattisgarh. It does not belong to Uttarakhand.
50. (A) 51. (D) 52. (A) 53. (C) 54. (C) 55. (A) 56. (B) 57. (B)
58. (B) ‘The present is the key to the past’ was said by James Hutton.
59. (D) 60. (D) 61. (B) 62. (C)
63. (C) The Linear Scale suitable for reading a distance of 5 km, 10 m and 100 cm is diagonal scale.
64. (D) 65. (D) 66. (C) 67. (B) 68. (B) 69. (B) 70. (B) 71. (A) 72. (D) 73. (B)
74. (C) Krishnaraja Sagar dam is not meant for irrigation. It is located nearly Brindavan gardens for its fountains and swimming boating, duck shooting and fishing facilities.
75. (C) 76. (D) 77. (D) 78. (D)
79. (C) The Chenab River does not originate nearby the Manasarowar Lake (Tibet China). It originates from Himachal Pradesh in the form of two streams Chandra and Bhaga.
80. (A) 81. (B)
82. (B) Mangrove Vegetation in India is most extensively found in the Sunderbans.
83. (D) 84. (B) 85. (A) 86. (D) 87. (B) 88. (C)
89. (A) According to Census of India 2001 Uttarkashi district of Uttarakhand has the lowest density of population i.e., 37 persons per sq. km.
90. (A) 91. (B) 92. (C) 93. (B) 94. (D)
95. (A) On March 28, 1999 a severe Earthquake occurred in and around Chamoli.
96. (A) 97. (C) 98. (D)
99. (A) Chamoli district of Uttarakhand state is the largest in size. It has 8030 sq km area.
100. (A) Champawat district of Uttarakhand is smallest in size. It cover 1766 sq km area.
101. (D) 102. (B) 103. (D)
104. (B) ‘Horse Latitudes’ are between 30°N–35°N and 30°S–35°S. It is a high pressure belt.
105. (C) Decibel is the unit of measuring noise.
106. (D) 107. (C) 108. (A) 109. (B) 110. (C) 111. (A) 112. (A) 113. (A)
114. (D) Mali, Zambia and Chad are land-locked countries of Africa. Libya is not land-locked country as it touches Mediterranean Sea in north.
115. (C) 116. (A) 117. (C)
118. (A) In Christaller Central Place Theory K = 4 denotes Transport principles.
119. (C)
120. (D) The idea of the Mobility Transition was developed by W. Zelinskys. He published a research article entitled ‘The Hypothesis of the Mobility Transition’ in Geographical Review Vol. 61, 1971, pp. 219. 49.