Allahabad Bank (Clerk) Exam 2009 (IInd Shift) : English Language (Solved)

Allahabad Bank (Clerk) Exam., 2009
(Held on 15-3-2009) (IInd Shift)
English Language
:Solved Paper

Directions—(Q. 1–12) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Rajendra stayed in a tiny hut with his goat. One day, his uncles tied it alongside the goats that belonged to the village butcher. The butcher killed all the goats. Now, Rajendra’s goat had a bell around its neck. Rajendra found the bell. Scared that the boy would tell everyone he had killed a stolen goat, the butcher gave Rajendra some money. His uncles met him and asked about the money. ‘Everyone wanted goat’s meat today. My goat somehow ended up at the butcher’s and he sold its meat. This is my share’, he replied. His uncles who owned twenty goats slaughtered them all and went to sell the meat. But there was so much meat in the market that they got only a few rupees for their goats.

Angry, they set fire to his little hut. Rajendra came home and found a pile of ash. Sadly he gathered the ash in a bag and decided to leave the village. He walked till he reached a village where he sat down under a tree to rest. Who was this stranger carrying a bag of ashes ? The villagers wondered. Rajendra’s hut had been his dearest possession, so he said, ‘It is the ash from a sacred place’. The villagers asked him to sell it. But he refused. Rumor spread that a holy man from the Himalayas had ash that chould cure all misfortunes. He wanted no money, but it was only right that you paid a coin. Soon the ash was all gone and in its place was a pile of coins. Rajendra decided to return to his village. When his uncles saw him they asked Rajendra his secret. Rajendra said, ‘I sold the ash from my burnt hut and got this money’. His uncles burnt down their fine houses, gathered the ashes and set off for the village. But as soon as they uttered the word ‘ash’, the villagers beat them ! By then the villagers knew there was no magic in the ash.

Angry, the uncles decided to kill Rajendra. They invited him for a walk and pushed him in the river. A girl washing clothes nearby heard his screams for help. Being a good swimmer she dived in. When she heard his story she thought of a plan. The next day Rajendra went to his uncles’ house with the girl, dressed in finery and said, ‘When I fell into the the river, she saved me. She has a palace at the bottom of the river. Do come and visit us.’ Saying this, they left in the direction of the river. The uncles decided to follow Rajendra and cheat him of his newfound wealth. So they ran to the river and dived into its deep waters. They were never heard of again.

1. Why did the butcher slaughter Rajendra’s goat ?
(A) Rajendra’s uncles had sold it to him
(B) He had stolen it as he did not have sufficient goats
(C) It was the healthiest of all the goats he had
(D) Rajendra agreed to let him if he was given a share of the profit
(E) None of these

2. Which of the following can be said about Rajendra’s uncles ?
(A) They treated Rajendra badly because they had not been on good terms with his parents
(B) They were cunning thieves and had made a lot of money
(C) They were rich but were jealous of Rajendra’s wealth
(D) They were creative and found indirect ways of helping Rajendra to make money
(E) They tried to drive Rajendra away from the village because they were ashamed of him

3. Why did Rajendra leave his village one day ?
(A) He was so upset over the death of his goat that he could not bear to live there any longer
(B) He left in order to sell ash at a nearby village
(C) He had lost his house in a fire set by his uncles
(D) He was in search of a wife since he had no family of his own
(E) His uncles refused him shelter and he had nowhere to stay after his hut burnt down

4. Why did the villagers donate money to Rajendra ?
(1) They saw his bag of ashes and felt sorry for him.
(2) They felt that it was their duty to help him in his time of trobule.
(3) He misled them into thinking he had travelled all the way to the Himalayas.
(A) None
(B) Both (1) & (2)
(C) Only (2)
(D) Only (3)
(E) None of these

5. How did Rajendra get his uncles to stop harassing him ?
(A) He offered them all his wife’s wealth
(B) He told them about his good luck so they decided to treat him well
(C) He pushed them into the river
(D) They realised they could not harm him and gave up
(E) None of these

6. What made the villagers angry with Rajendra’s uncles ?
(A) The ash the uncles had sold them was useless
(B) They were asking an unreasonable price for the ash
(C) They thought the uncles wanted to cheat them just as Rajendra had
(D) His uncles had treated Rajendra very badly
(E) None of these

7. Why did the girl go into the river ?
(A) She had to enter the river to wash her clothes
(B) She wanted to show off her swimming skills
(C) Seeing what Rajendra’s uncles had done she wanted to save him
(D) She lived at the bottom of the river
(E) None of these

8. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage ?
(1) Rajendra plotted with the villagers to teach his uncle a lesson.
(2) Rajendra married the girl who saved him from drowning.
(3) Rajendra’s uncles were very greedy.
(A) None
(B) Both (1) & (2)
(C) Only (2)
(D) Only (3)
(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 9–10) Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
9. Stayed
(A) delayed
(B) remained
(C) lived
(D) postponed
(E) stopped

10. Rest
(A) balance
(B) relax
(C) calm
(D) quiet
(E) others

Directions—(Q. 11–12) Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
11. Sacred
(A) devil
(B) unfaithful
(C) sinless
(D) unholy
(E) religious

12. Good
(A) dishonest
(B) incapable
(C) unhealthy
(D) unsuitable
(E) disobedient

Directions—(Q. 13–17) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer.

13. Our country is one of the most densely populated in the world and need increased food production.
(A) needy of increasing
(B) needed an increases
(C) need increasingly the
(D) needs to increase
(E) No correction required

14. This is an organisation which helps the poor by providing loans at mostly less rates of interest—
(A) at much smaller
(B) at very low
(C) with such lower
(D) for so little
(E) No correction required

15. I cannot say if I definitely get into the college of my choice but my teachers are confident that I will—
(A) that I shall definitely
(B) whether I was definitely
(C) why I was definite
(D) unless I definitely was to
(E) No correction required

16. Since this is a crucial project you should choose those who are experienced, for it—
(A) will be experiencing
(B) are experienced
(C) have experience of
(D) experiences from
(E) No correction required

17. Learnt that he wanted to be posted in the city, I requested the manager to transfer him—
(A) Once I learn
(B) I have learnt since
(C) One learning that
(D) While learning because
(E) No correction required

Directions—(Q. 18–22) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D) One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.

18. It is true (A) that credit card companies cannot import (B) such (C) high charges (D) on customers. All correct (E)

19. In our opinion these norms (A) are not applicant (B) in this kind (C) of situation. (D) All correct (E)

20. The government is trying (A) to control (B) the price raise (C) but this is not the method it should adopt. (D) All correct (E)

21. To ensure (A) there has been no fraud (B) the accounts of the previous (C) year need to be carelessly (D) examined. All correct (E)

22. In this time of recession you should consider (A) the possibility (B) of reducing (C) your expenditure. (D) All correct (E)

Directions—(Q. 23–27) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them—
(1) I, therefore, contacted him, found out his fees and that he wanted to study at a Teacher’s Training College.
(2) He sent me a letter of thanks but I was surprised to also find some currency notes in the envelope.
(3) While reading the newspaper I saw an interview with a boy who had ranked eighth in the SSC exams.
(4) He knew I did not expect any account of the money yet he had returned the balance of the amount I had sent, as his expenditure was less.
(5) He was unable to study further because his father earned only forty rupees a day.
(6) I accordingly sent Rs. 1,800 to cover his expenses for six months.

23. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)

24. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (2)
(B) (3)
(C) (4)
(D) (5)
(E) (6)

25. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)

26. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearangement ?
(A) (2)
(B) (3)
(C) (4)
(D) (5)
(E) (6)

27. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)

Directions—(Q. 28–32) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘E’. (Ignor errors of punctuation, if any.)

28. Base on the research (A) / we have conducted in (B) / different parts of the country (C) / this scheme will be successful. (D) No error (E)

29. I want to share (A) / my experience with you (B) / though you will (C) / benefit from it. (D) No error (E)

30. He used to advise (A) / his students to do (B) / their work serious if they (C) / wanted to achieve their goals. (D) No error (E)

31. Any of these branches do (A) / not require more than (B) / two employees since they (C) / have been recently established. (D) No error (E)

32. He encouraged us to (A) / think but none of the (B) / suggestions we made was (C) / discussed at the meeting. (D) No error (E)

Directions—(Q. 33– 40) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

From the beginning, we …(33)… that we would trust our clients and never …(34)… the judiciary in seeking repayment of our loans. We feel that our relationship is with people …(35)… than with papers. We succeed or fail depending on how …(36)… our personal relationship is with our borrowers. Today, the …(37)… in other banks is that every borrower is going to run away with their money so they tie him or her up in legal documents to make …(38)… that the borrower cannot escape the reach of the bank. In …(39)… cases the borrower does end up defaulting but this is less than one per cent. To us this represents a …(40)… remainder of what we need to improve to succeed.

33. (A) clear
(B) decided
(C) determine
(D) firm
(E) emphatic

34. (A) used
(B) obey
(C) involve
(D) brief
(E) apply

35. (A) instead
(B) preferable
(C) prior
(D) rather
(E) less

36. (A) better
(B) valuable
(C) endured
(D) benefited
(E) strong

37. (A) assumption
(B) guess
(C) undertaking
(D) responsibility
(E) guarantee

38. (A) safe
(B) confirm
(C) certain
(D) surely
(E) believe

39. (A) open
(B) hardly
(C) often
(D) seldom
(E) rare

40. (A) past
(B) eager
(C) compulsorily
(D) constant
(E) persisted

Answers with Explanations
1. (E) 2. (C) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (E) 6. (C) 7. (E) 8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (B) 11. (D) 12. (B)
13. (D) Change ‘need increased’ to ‘needs to increase’ Here the subject is Signular and it requires Singular Verb.
14. (B) Change ‘at mostly less’ to ‘at very low’.
15. (A) Change ‘if I definitely’ to that ‘I shall definitely’.
16. (C) Change ‘are experienced, for’ to ‘have experience of’.
17. (E)
18. (B) Change ‘import’ to ‘impose’.
19. (B) Change ‘applicant’ to ‘applicable’.
20. (C) Change ‘raise’ to ‘rise’.
21. (D) Change ‘carelessly’ to ‘carefully’.
22. (E) No error.
23. (C) 24. (D) 25. (A 26. (E) 27. (D)
28. (A) Change ‘Base’ to ‘Based’.
29. (C) Change ‘though’ to ‘and’.
30. (C) Change ‘serious’ to ‘seriously’.
31. (A) Change ‘do’ to ‘does’.
32. (E) 33. (B) 34. (C) 35. (D) 36. (E) 37. (A) 38. (C) 39. (E) 40. (D)

Allahabad Bank Agriculture Officers Exam, 2009 : Solved Paper

Allahabad Bank Agriculture Officers Exam., 2009
(Held on 1-3-2009)
General Awareness : Solved Paper

1. According to the World Economic Forum which of the following groups of countries have the most developed financial system in the world ?
(A) USA–France
(B) France–Britain
(C) India–USA
(D) Britain–Australia
(E) USA–Britain
Ans : (E)

2. Which of the following sectors of US economy were passing through a phase of slow down recently and wanted US Govt. to provide bail out packages to them ?
1. Agricultural sector
2. Auto sector
3. Banking and Financial Services Sector
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) 2 and 3 only
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (C)

3. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about the buy back of the Foreign Convertible Bonds (FCBs), which were in news recently ?
1. Govt. has put a ban on the buy back of the Foreign convertible Bonds.
2. Govt. has now allowed the buy back of the Foreign convertible Bonds.
3. Companies can now pre pay the foreign convertible bonds from their Indian rupee resources and/or through their foreign currency accruals.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) 2 and 3 only
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

4. Which of the following countries has decided to issue a currency note equivalent to that of US$ 200 million as it is struggling with the world's highest inflation rate of 231 million per cent ?
(A) Somalia
(B) Ethiopea
(C) Sudan
(D) Uganda
(E) Zimbabwe
Ans : (E)

5. The Reserve Bank of India in its mid term review of the monetary policy in October 2008 had said that the inflation would be around 7% by the year-end.
Which of the following is/are indications on the basis of which RBI gave this statement ?
1. Headline inflation as measured by the wholesale price index has started declining
2. Commodity prices are coming down
3. Domestic Demand is also slowing down
4. Fuel prices are lowered down recently
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 4 only
(C) All 1, 2, 3 and 4
(D) Only 4
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

6. As we all noticed in the recent past almost all major banks were offering loans at cheaper rates. Which was/were the major event(s) that took place in the financial sector, which prompted banks to do so ?
1. RBI frequently announced a cut in various rates and ratios
2. Govt. provided Rs. 7000 crore refinance to SIDBI to help SSIs
3. Housing loans upto Rs. 20 lakhs will now be treated as loan to priority sector
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 & 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

7. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE about the Lehman Brothers Holdings Inc.
which was in news sometimes back ?
1. The US Govt. provided a US $ 7000 million bail out package to the company
2. The company filed for bankruptcy in a court in New York
3. The company is now out of financial crisis and is busy in its restructuring so that it can start afresh.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

8. Which of the following States became the first State in India to reserve a Govt. job for HIV + candidates ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Kerala
(C) Karnataka
(D) Delhi
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

9. The Govt. of India recently decided to allow Currency Futures in India. In addition to Ministry of Finance which is/are the other organization(s) whose permission/approval is needed for such operations in India ?
1. International Monetary Fund (IMF)
2. Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
3. Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 2
(E) Only 2 and 3
Ans : (E)

10. The Reserve Bank of India has decided to help banks, as a temporary measure, by providing additional liquidity support under LAF. What is the full form of LAF ?
(A) Loan Adjustment Fund
(B) Liquidity Adjustment Facility
(C) Long Awaited Funds
(D) Loan Against Funds
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

11. As per the report being published in media now the economy of Asia is fast approaching at the saturation point while the growth prospects for Europe and US appear to be bleak. Hence Chinese, Americans and others are now looking towards—
(A) Africa
(B) South East Asia
(C) Latin America
(D) Gulf countries
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

12. The formal or institutional credit delivery system in rural India comprises of which of the following ?
1. Cooperative Credit Institutions
2. Commercial Banks
3. Regional Rural Banks
4. Self Help Groups
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 3 and 4
(C) Only 1, 2 and 3
(D) All 1, 2, 3 and 4
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

13. As per the reports published recently in the newspapers/magazines the Current Account Deficit of India's Balance of Payment during 2007-08 was at a very high level. When compared to the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) the percentage of the Current Account Deficit of 2007-08 was about what per cent of the GDP at that time ?
(A) 0•5%
(B) 0•75%
(C) 1%
(D) 1•25%
(E) 1•5%
Ans : (E)

14. The FDIC a USA based financial sector organization's name was in news recently. What is the full form of FDIC ?
(A) Federal Insurance Deposit Corporation
(B) Financial Insurance and Deposits Company
(C) Federal Income and Deposits Corporation
(D) Financial Instruments and Development Company
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

15. The Reserve Bank of India has recently issued guidelines to banks on Pillar 2 of Basel II framework. Pillar 2 deals with which of the following ?
1. Better human resource management
2. Adequate capital to support risks
3. Better profitability with minimum number of employees
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

16. Which of the following countries recently signed the Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty (CTBT) and became the 179th country to do the same ?
(A) India
(B) Pakistan
(C) Sudan
(D) Iraq
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

17. A State Mission on Urban Poverty is formed by which of the following States in India ?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Rajasthan
(D) Kerala
(E) Tamil Nadu
Ans : (D)

18. The Govt. of India these days is trying to implement new projects/schemes for the development of North Eastern Region (NER) of our country. Which of the following statement (s) is/are True about the North Eastern Region of our country ?
1. The NE Region comprising eight States has a high literacy level and is rich in ethnic cultural heritage with linguistic diversity.
2. The region has very good educational institutions and facilities as each and every district has a very good school/college and one or two institutes for higher learning.
3. The Govt. of India is trying to open few model central schools in the Region so that children of the Region can compete with the children of other zones/regions as entire education in the NE Region is given in local languages at present.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

19. India has recently signed an agreement with which of the following to form a Free Trade Area from January, 2009 ?
(A) ASEAN
(B) SAARC
(C) EU
(D) Latin America
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

20. Which of the following States has decided to modernize Godavari Delta by investing a huge sum of Rs. 3,361 crores ?
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Kerala
(D) Andhra Pradesh
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

21. Which of the following State Govts. has decided to request the Govt. of India to provide 33.3% reservation for the backward classes in State Assemblies and in the Lok Sabha ?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Bihar
(D) Tamil Nadu
(E) Andhra Pradesh
Ans : (D)

22. Which of the following is not a department of the Ministry of Finance, Govt. of India ?
(A) Department of Economic Affairs
(B) Department of Expenditure
(C) Department of Revenue
(D) Department of Foreign Investments
(E) Department of Disinvestments
Ans : (D)

23. Which of the following countries recently signed a security cooperation agreement with India when our Prime Minister visited that country recently ?
(A) North Korea
(B) South Korea
(C) China
(D) Japan
(E) Nepal
Ans : (D)

24. Which of the following two countries decided to approach International Monetary Fund (IMF) to support them in their efforts to avoid financial turmoil which engulfed some big nations ?
(A) Hungary and Ukrain
(B) Croatia and Russia
(C) Russia and China
(D) USA and Russia
(E) Australia and China
Ans : (A)

25. As we all know a B. K. Chaturvedi Committee was set up by the Govt. of India to give recommendations on oil and natural gas sector. Which of the following is/are not amongst its recommendations ?
1. Special taxes to be imposed on all oil products in the country
2. Excise duties on petrol to be reduced to Rs. 10 per litre till March 2009
3. Subsidy on LPG should be increased from present 25% to 40%
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) Only 1 and 2
Ans : (D)

26. Which of the following is not a social sector programme being run by the Govt. of India ?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission
(B) National Rural Health Mission
(C) National Agricultural Insurance Scheme
(D) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
(E) Mid Day Meal Scheme
Ans : (C)

27. Under the Agricultural Debt Waiver and Debt Relief Scheme, the Govt. of India recently gave the first instalment of credit to the banks. What was the amount of the1st instalment ?
(A) Rs. 10,000 crore
(B) Rs. 15,000 crore
(C) Rs. 20,000 crore
(D) Rs. 25,000 crore
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

28. As per the newspaper reports how many bank branches India has at present ? (all the banks put together) About—
(A) 25,000
(B) 30,000
(C) 50,000
(D) 60,000
(E) 70,000
Ans : (C)

29. As per the reports published in various newspapers/magazines in several nations of Asia, Africa and Latin America more people have mobile phones than bank accounts. What is the position in India in regard to these two facilities ? [Pick up the correct statement(s)]
1. In India about 260 million people have mobile phones.
2. At present about 34% of Indian population is enjoying the formal banking facilities.
3. RBI has recently approved mobile Banking (m–Banking) and favours SMS based small ticket payments upto Rs. 15,000.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

30. The World Investment Report 2008 was released in September 2008. This report is published every year by—
(A) Govt. of India
(B) World Trade Organization (WTO)
(C) Asian Development Bank (ADB)
(D) World Bank
(E) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD)
Ans : (E)

31. The National Illness Assistance Fund (NIAF) which was set up in 1997 is now known with a new name as—
(A) Rastriya Arogya Nidhi (RAN)
(B) National Health Mission (NHM)
(C) Pulse Polio Abhiyan (PPA)
(D) Integrated Disease Surveillance Project (IDSP)
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

32. Bhimsen Joshi who was chosen for India's highest civilian award ‘Bharat Ratna’ is a famous—
(A) Sitarist
(B) Tabla Player
(C) Classical Singer
(D) Classical Dancer
(E) Cine Actor
Ans : (C)

33. As we all know the UN Security Council and IAEA want Iran to stop enrichment of Uranium as they fear that Iran may produce nuclear armaments. What is Irans’ view on the issue ?
1. Iran says it is doing enrichment for civilian purposes only
2. Iran is of the view that in the present scenario of the building tension in gulf region it needs a nuclear bomb to protect its interests.
3. Iran has signed Nuclear Proliferation Treaty (NPT) and it is doing whatever is allowed to do under NPT's terms and conditions
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 1 and 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

34. As we all know some new initiatives were introduced in the area of Fiscal Management by the Govt. of India. Which of the following acts was passed a few years back to keep a check on the fiscal indiscipline on macro economic parameters ?
(A) FERA
(B) FRBMA
(C) FEMA
(D) Public Debt Act
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

35. As we all know the Govt. of India has launched a massive infrastructure development programme known as Bharat Nirman. What is/are the goal(s) of this programme ?
1. To bring at least one crore hectares additional land under assured irrigation
2. To provide internet connections to all 1,25,000 villages by 2012.
3. To provide road connectivity to all villages with a population of 1000 in plains and 500 in hilly areas.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (C)

36. Some members of the World Trade Organization (WTO) have raised objections on India's decision to give export subsidies on which of the following commodities ?
(A) Wheat
(B) Sugar
(C) Rice
(D) Steel
(E) Cement
Ans : (C)

37. Who among the following is the author of the book entitled, “To a Hunger-free World” ?
(A) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(B) M. S. Swaminathan
(C) Jaswant Singh
(D) Nelson Mandela
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

38. National Games and Sports 2011 will be organised in which of the following states ?
(A) Goa
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Delhi
(D) Rajasthan
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

39. ‘Jakumi’ is the mascot of which of the following events ?
(A) Commonwealth Games 2009
(B) SAARC Games 2010
(C) National Games 2009
(D) European Union Games 2012
(E) FIFA World Cup 2010
Ans : (E)

40. Nobel Laureate (2008) Jean-Marie Gustave le Clezio writes in which of the following languages ?
(A) French
(B) Spanish
(C) Japanese
(D) German
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

41. Shiva Narayan Chandrapol, who was honoured with “Cricketer of the Year, 2008” by ICC, belongs to—
(A) India
(B) South Africa
(C) West Indies
(D) Sri Lanka
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

42. ……… was the only Indian to win a gold medal in Olympic 2008.
(A) Saina Nehwal
(B) Sudesh Kumar
(C) Pankaj Advani
(D) Mahesh Bhupati
(E) Abhinav Bindra
Ans : (E)

43. The name of Jigme Khesar N. Wangchuk was in news, since he was enthroned as the…… of the following country.
(A) President of Bhutan
(B) King of Bhutan
(C) Prime Minister of Thailand
(D) King of Cambodia
(E) Prime Minister of Cambodia
Ans : (B)

44. Irani Cup is associated with which of the following games ?
(A) Hockey
(B) Cricket
(C) Badminton
(D) Golf
(E) Lawn Tennis
Ans : (B)

45. Recently Govt. of India has decided to increase the direct foreign investment, from present 26 per cent to—
(A) 40%
(B) 45%
(C) 49%
(D) 74%
(E) 100%
Ans : (C)

46. Third summit of IBSA was organised in October 2008 in—
(A) New Delhi
(B) Salvador
(C) Durban
(D) Mumbai
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

47. Recently, who of the following was awarded National Amity Prize 2008 ?
(A) Shekhar Gupta
(B) Kiran Desai
(C) Vikram Seth
(D) Anita Desai
(E) Khushwant Singh
Ans : (E)

48. As per news in the newspapers, the President of country is Mr. Mugabo who has signed an agreement with the opposition leader Morgan Swanariroy to share to rule the country. What is the name of the country ?
(A) Zimbabwe
(B) Croatia
(C) Sudan
(D) Ethiopia
(E) Egypt
Ans : (A)

49. Dronacharya Prize is awarded in the field of…… for excellence in coaching.
(A) Literature
(B) Games and Sports
(C) Cinema
(D) Classical Dance
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

50. Which of the following rate/ratio is not fixed by Reserve Bank of India ?
(A) Rapo rate
(B) SLR
(C) CRR
(D) Inflation
(E) RBI fixes all the above
Ans : (D)

MP PSC (Pre) Exam, 2008 : Public Administration

Madhya Pradesh P.S.C. (Pre.) Exam., 2008
(Held on 11-01-2009)
Public Administration : Solved Paper

1. Which of the following administrative thinkers has defined administration as “the organization and direction of human and material resources to achieve desired ends” ?
(A) L. D. White
(B) J. M. Pfiffner
(C) J. A. Veig
(D) H. A. Simon
Ans : (B)

2. Which one of the following statements is not correct in respect of New Public Management ?
(A) It has market orientation
(B) It upholds public interest
(C) It advocates managerial autonomy
(D) It focuses on performance appraisal
Ans : (B)

3. ‘Good Governance’ and ‘Participating Civil Society for Development’ were stressed in World Bank Report of—
(A) 1992
(B) 1997
(C) 2000
(D) 2003
Ans : (A)

4. If the administrative authority within a department is vested in a single individual, then that system is known as—
(A) Board
(B) Bureau
(C) Commission
(D) Council
Ans : (B)

5. Globalisation means—
(A) Financial market system is centered in a single state
(B) The growth of a single unified world market
(C) Geographical location of a firm is of utmost importance
(D) Foreign capitalist transactions
Ans : (B)

6. By whom was the ‘Managerial Grid’ developed ?
(A) Blake and White
(B) Blake and Schmidt
(C) Blake and Mouton
(D) Mouton and Shophan
Ans : (C)

7. Who among the following says that public administration includes the operations of only the executive branch of government ?
(A) L. D. White and Luther Gulick
(B) L. D. White
(C) Luther Gulick
(D) W. F. Willoughby
Ans : (C)

8. The concept of the ‘zone of indifference’ is associated with—
(A) Decision-Making
(B) Leadership
(C) Authority
(D) Motivation
Ans : (C)

9. Who has analysed the leadership in terms of ‘circular response’ ?
(A) C. I. Barnard
(B) M. P. Follett
(C) Millet
(D) Taylor
Ans : (B)

10. Simon proposed a new concept of administration based on the methodology of—
(A) Decision-making
(B) Bounded rationality
(C) Logical positivism
(D) Satisfying
Ans : (C)

11. Who wrote the book ‘Towards A New Public Administration : The Minnowbrook Perspective’ ?
(A) Frank Marini
(B) Dwight Waldo
(C) C. J. Charlesworth
(D) J. M. Pfiffner
Ans : (A)

12. Who rejected the principles of administration as ‘myths’ and ‘proverbs’ ?
(A) W. F. Willoughby
(B) Herbert Simon
(C) Chester Barnard
(D) L. D. White
Ans : (B)

13. The classical theory of administration is also known as the—
(A) Historical theory
(B) Mechanistic theory
(C) Locational theory
(D) Human Relations theory
Ans : (B)

14. How many principles of organization were propounded by Henry Fayol ?
(A) 10
(B) 14
(C) 5
(D) 9
Ans : (B)

15. Simon was positively influenced by ideas of—
(A) Terry
(B) Barnard
(C) L. D. White
(D) Henry Fayol
Ans : (B)

16. Negative motivation is based on—
(A) Fear
(B) Reward
(C) Money
(D) Status
Ans : (A)

17. ‘Job loading’ means—
(A) Shifting of an employee from one job to another
(B) Deliberate upgrading of responsibility, scope and challenge
(C) Making the job more interesting
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

18. The theory of ‘Prismatic Society’ in Public Administration is based on—
(A) Study of public services in developed and developing countries
(B) Institutional comparision of public administration in developed countries
(C) Structural-functional analysis of public administration in developing countries
(D) Historical studies of public administration in different societies
Ans : (C)

19. Who among the following is an odd thinker ?
(A) Taylor
(B) Maslow
(C) Herzberg
(D) Likert
Ans : (A)

20. Which of the following is not included in ‘hygiene’ factors in the Herzberg’s two-factor theory of motivation ?
(A) Salary
(B) Working conditions
(C) Company’s policy
(D) Responsibility
Ans : (D)

21. The ‘Gang-Plank’ refers to—
(A) Discipline
(B) Initiative
(C) Equity
(D) Level jumping
Ans : (D)

22. The history of evolution of the Public Administration is generally divided into—
(A) Three phases
(B) Four phases
(C) Five phases
(D) Six phases
Ans : (C)

23. Henry Fayol’s General theory of Administration is applicable at—
(A) Policy management level
(B) Top management level
(C) Middle management level
(D) Workshop management level
Ans : (B)

24. F. W. Taylor, the founding father of Scientific Management movement propounded the theory which was conceived to be a scientific methodology of—
(A) Careful observation
(B) Measurement
(C) Generalisation
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)

25. In which of the following are public and private administrations not common ?
(A) Filing
(B) Managerial techniques
(C) Scope and complexity
(D) Accounting
Ans : (C)

26. Bureaucracy that is committed to the programmes of the political party in power is called—
(A) Depoliticised bureaucracy
(B) Semi-politicised bureaucracy
(C) Committed bureaucracy
(D) Fully politicised bureaucracy
Ans : (C)

27. The principle of ‘span of control’ means—
(A) An employee should receive orders from one superior only
(B) The number of subordinate employees that an administrator can effectively direct
(C) The control or supervision of the superior over the subordinate
(D) The number of people being controlled
Ans : (B)

28. Which of the following is not a function of staff agency ?
(A) Planning
(B) Advising
(C) Consultation
(D) Achieving goals
Ans : (D)

29. Which of the following is not a staff agency in India ?
(A) Cabinet Secretariat
(B) Cabinet Committees
(C) Planning Commission
(D) Economic Affairs Department
Ans : (D)

30. In hierarchy, the term ‘scalar’ means—
(A) Step
(B) Ladder
(C) Position
(D) Process
Ans : (B)

31. The 4Ps theory of departmentalization as advocated by Luther Gulick are—
(A) Purpose, process, plan, place
(B) Place, person, programme, process
(C) Purpose, process, place, programme
(D) Purpose, process, person, place
Ans : (D)

32. One who tells one’s supervisor anything detrimental to an associate is called—
(A) A squealer
(B) A rate buster
(C) A chiseller
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

33. According to Urwick, where the work is of a more simple and routine nature, the span of control varies from—
(A) 9 to 12
(B) 8 to 12
(C) 7 to 9
(D) 10 to 12
Ans : (B)

34. Delegation of authority by a Sales Manger to his saleman is an example of—
(A) Upward delegation
(B) Sideward delegation
(C) Downward delegation
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

35. A virtual organisation is—
(A) One which has profit as the major goal
(B) One in which leadership always tends to fulfil psychological needs of the subordinates
(C) A small, core organization that outsources major busi-ness functions
(D) One which has concern of the employees as its top priority
Ans : (C)

36. The most effective means of citizen’s control over administration is—
(A) Election
(B) Pressure Groups
(C) Advisory Committees
(D) Public Opinion
Ans : (A)

37. The Santhanam Committee on prevention of corruption was appointed in—
(A) 1961
(B) 1964
(C) 1963
(D) 1962
Ans : (D)

38. The first country in the world to introduce the right to information was—
(A) Norway
(B) USA
(C) Sweden
(D) Finland
Ans : (C)

39. What is meant by the Doctrine of State Immunity ?
(A) The State is immune to being sued
(B) The State can be sued but not in the national courts
(C) The State cannot be sued in its own court without its consent
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

40. ‘Habeas Corpus’ literally means—
(A) To have the body of
(B) To command
(C) To prohibit
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

41. The system of ‘Rule of Law’ was propounded by—
(A) A. V. Dicey
(B) Lowell
(C) W. F. Willoughby
(D) H. Finer
Ans : (A)

42. Who says that “Power corrupts and absolute power corrupts absolutely” ?
(A) L. D. White
(B) Lord Beveridge
(C) Lord Acton
(D) Josiah Stamp
Ans : (C)

43. The Public Accounts Committee of Parliament in India consists of—
(A) 15 members
(B) 22 members
(C) 25 members
(D) 30 members
Ans : (B)

44. If a public servant imposes upon the citizens duties and obligations which are not required by law, it
can lead to—
(A) Error of law
(B) Abuse of power
(C) Error of authority
(D) Error of fact finding
Ans : (B)

45. Of which of the following administrative systems is the absence of judicial review a feature ?
1. USA
2. UK
3. France
4. India
(A) 3
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 2
Ans : (B)

46. The present constitution of the USA was adopted in—
(A) 1786
(B) 1778
(C) 1787
(D) 1789
Ans : (C)

47. ‘Grand Corps’ in French Civil Service stands for—
(A) Senior level of specialist administrators
(B) Senior level of generalist administrators
(C) Senior level of generalistcum-specialist administra-tors
(D) Senior level of defence administrators
Ans : (C)

48. In France, the term of the President is—
(A) Four years
(B) Five years
(C) Six years
(D) Seven years
Ans : (D)

49. In England, the Cabinet must resign from office as soon as it loses the confidence of—
(A) The King or the Queen
(B) The House of Commons
(C) The House of Lords
(D) All of these
Ans : (B)

50. Under their service rules, the British Civil servants—
(A) Are required to be neutral in politics
(B) Can be partisan
(C) Can be partly neutral and partly partian
(D) Can pursue active party politics
Ans : (A)

51. The term ‘Performance Budget’ was coined by—
(A) Administrative Reforms Commission of India
(B) Second Hoover Commission of USA
(C) Estimates Committee of India
(D) First Hoover Commission of USA
Ans : (D)

52. During passing of budget in the Parliament ‘Guilotine’ is applied to those demands which are—
(A) Discussed and approved
(B) Discussed but not approved
(C) Discussed and reduced
(D) Not discussed for want of time
Ans : (D)

53. Audit of State Government is—
(A) A state subject
(B) A union subject
(C) In the concurrent list
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

54. In which year was the Committee on Public Undertakings constituted by the Lok Sabha ?
(A) 1953
(B) 1956
(C) 1963
(D) 1964
Ans : (D)

55. The number of demands in the general budget for civil expenditure is—
(A) 103
(B) 106
(C) 102
(D) 109
Ans : (A)

56. The rule of lapse means—
(A) All appropriations voted by the legislature expire at the end of the financial year
(B) All pending bills in Parliament lapse with its prorogation
(C) The demand for grants of a ministry lapse with criticism of its policy by the opposition
(D) The appropriation bill lapses if it is not returned by the Rajya Sabha within 14 days
Ans : (A)

57. The C & AG of India does not audit the receipts and expenditure of—
(A) Municipal undertakings
(B) State Governments
(C) Government companies
(D) Central Government
Ans : (A)

58. The role of the Finance Commission in Central-State fiscal relations has been undermined by—
(A) The State Governments
(B) The Zonal Councils
(C) The Planning Commission
(D) The Election Commission
Ans : (A)

59. The Railway Budget was separated from the Central Budget in the year—
(A) 1920
(B) 1921
(C) 1922
(D) 1923
Ans : (B)

60. The Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament is appointed by—
(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) President of India
(D) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Ans : (A)

61. The question asked orally after the question hour in the House is called—
(A) Supplementary question
(B) Short notice question
(C) Starred question
(D) Unstarred question
Ans : (C)

62. The economy cut motion seeks to reduce the proposed expenditure of a demand for grant by—
(A) Rupees one hundred
(B) Rupee one
(C) A specified amount
(D) An unspecified amount
Ans : (C)

63. Who was the Chairman of the Economic Reforms Commission (1981-84) ?
(A) Dharam Vira
(B) L. K. Jha
(C) K. Hanumanthiya
(D) B. G. Deshmukh
Ans : (B)

64. In which year was the decision of separating accounting function from audit function taken by the
Central Government for its financial administration ?
(A) 1950
(B) 1965
(C) 1976
(D) 2000
Ans : (C)

65. In which recruitment, in a system for higher position is open to all the qualified candidates who may
wish to apply is known as ?
(A) Direct recruitment
(B) Recruitment by promotion
(C) Ordinary recruitment
(D) Passive recruitment
Ans : (A)

66. ‘Position classification’ is the classification of—
(A) Salaries
(B) Duties
(C) Departments
(D) Personal status of incumbents
Ans : (B)

67. The civil service was defined as “professional body of officials, permanent, paid and skilled” by—
(A) Herman Finer
(B) O. G. Stahl
(C) Felix Nigro
(D) E. N. Gladden
Ans : (A)

68. A new All India Service can be created by—
(A) An amendment of the constitution
(B) An executive order
(C) A resolution under Article 312 of the Constitution
(D) A statute
Ans : (C)

69. The British concept of Civil Service neutrality is laid down by—
(A) Fulton Committee
(B) Assheton Committee
(C) Masterman Committee
(D) Northcote-Trevelyn Committee
Ans : (C)

70. The ‘spoils system’ in the USA began during the period of—
(A) Jefferson
(B) Jackson
(C) Washington
(D) Adams
Ans : (B)

71. Promotion in Civil Services indicates—
(A) Such changes in the situation which indicate difficult work and more important responsibility
(B) Change in the place of work
(C) Transfer of work from field to Headquarters
(D) Always an increase in pay
Ans : (A)

72. Which of the following is not an All India Service ?
(A) Indian Foreign Service
(B) Indian Administrative Service
(C) Indian Forest Service
(D) Indian Police Service
Ans : (A)

73. The Union Public Service Commission of India has been established under the—
(A) Article 315
(B) Article 320
(C) Article 325
(D) Article 335
Ans : (A)

74. Which of the following reports deals with the relations between the specialists and generalists ?
(A) Haldane Committee Report
(B) Sarkaria Commission Report
(C) Fulton Committee Report
(D) Kothari Committee Report
Ans : (C)

75. Reservation for the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes in the services has been provided in the
Indian Constitution under—
(A) Article 315
(B) Article 335
(C) Article 365
(D) Article 375
Ans : (B)

76. ‘Efficiency record’ method for determining the merit for promotion is practised in—
(A) The USA
(B) France
(C) The UK
(D) Japan
Ans : (A)

77. “Officials make work for each other.” This is said by—
(A) Peter Drucker
(B) Ramsay Muir
(C) Parkinson
(D) H. Finer
Ans : (C)

78. The Lal Bahadur Shastri National Academy of Administration started functioning at Mussoorie from—
(A) June 12, 1959
(B) Sept. 13, 1959
(C) Sept. 1, 1959
(D) February 12, 1959
Ans : (C)

79. In the USA, the ‘spoils system’ was discarded in favour of the ‘merit principle’ by the followings Act—
(A) Civil Service Reform Act, 1978
(B) Pendleton Act, 1883
(C) Hatch Act, 1939
(D) Civil Service Act of 1853
Ans : (B)

80. Constitutional Safeguards to civil servants in India are ensured by—
(A) Article 310
(B) Article 312
(C) Article 311
(D) Article 315
Ans : (C)

81. ‘Mandamus’ is a writ issued by the Court—
(A) Asking a public official or any authority to perform legal duties
(B) Enquiring into the legality of claim of any person to public office
(C) Asking a person who has detained any other person, to appear before a court
(D) Against any lower court not to do any act excess of their jurisdiction
Ans : (A)

82. Rajya Sabha in India consists of—
(A) 238 members
(B) 250 members
(C) 254 members
(D) 256 members
Ans : (B)

83. The features of Indian Federal System are—
1. Division of powers
2. Separation of powers
3. Independent judiciary
4. Leadership of the Prime Minister
5. A written constitution
Now choose the right option—
(A) 2, 3, 5
(B) 1, 4, 5
(C) 1, 2, 5
(D) 1, 3, 5
Ans : (D)

84. In which of the following articles of the constitution is the term ‘Cabinet’ mentioned ?
(A) Article 74
(B) Article 75
(C) Article 352
(D) Not mentioned in the Constitution
Ans : (C)

85. How many members are nominated to the State Legislative Council by the Governor ?
(A) 1/3rd
(B) 1/12 th
(C) 1/8th
(D) 1/6th
Ans : (D)

86. The Public Corporation is—
(A) Accountable to Finance Ministry only
(B) Partially accountable to Parliament
(C) Not accountable to Parliament
(D) Accountable to Parliament
Ans : (D)

87. Who among the following said that, “Company form of public enterprise is a fraud on the Indian Constitution ?
(A) Paul Appleby
(B) Chhagla Commission
(C) Ashok Chanda
(D) Morarjee Desai
Ans : (C)

88. The grants made in advance by the Lok Sabha in respect of estimated expenditure is called—
(A) Token grant
(B) Vote on credit
(C) Exceptional grant
(D) Vote on account
Ans : (D)

89. Impeachment proceedings against the President for violation of the Constitution can be initiated in—
(A) The Lok Sabha
(B) The Rajya Sabha
(C) Either House of Parliament
(D) The Supreme Court
Ans : (C)

90. Planning Commission was setup—
(A) Under the Government of India Act, 1935
(B) As per the provisions of the Constitution of India
(C) By a Cabinet resolution
(D) As per the recommendations of the National Development Council
Ans : (C)

91. If the President wants to resign, he shall address his letter of resignation to—
(A) Chief Justice of India
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) Vice-President of India
(D) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Ans : (C)

92. The duty of Finance Commission is not to recommend upon—
(A) Distribution of taxes between the Union and States
(B) Determination of principles which should govern the grantsin-aid from the Centre to the State
(C) Consideration of new items of revenue to be allocated to States
(D) Any other matter especially referred to the Commission
Ans : (C)

93. The term ‘Federation’ has been used in the Indian Constitution in—
(A) Article 373
(B) Article 280
(C) Article 90
(D) Nowhere
Ans : (D)

94. A Governor can issue an ordinance—
(A) Whenever he likes
(B) Whenever Chief Minister advises him
(C) Whenever the State Legislature is not in session
(D) When the Union Government tells him to do so
Ans : (C)

95. Charged expenditure upon the Consolidated fund of India—
(A) Is submitted to the vote of Parliament
(B) Is not submitted to the vote of Rajya Sabha
(C) Is not submitted for the sanction of the President
(D) Is not submitted to the vote of Parliament
Ans : (D)

96. Which Article of the Constitution of India deals with the nomination of the Anglo-Indian community in the State Legislative Assembly ?
(A) Article 239
(B) Article 267
(C) Article 333
(D) Article 403
Ans : (C)

97. The principal function of Directorates in a State Government is to—
(A) Undertake policy implementation
(B) Render auxiliary services
(C) Facilitate policy formulation
(D) Promote inter-agency cooperation and coordination
Ans : (A)

98. The District treasury comes under the control of the—
(A) State Government
(B) District Collector
(C) District Treasury Officer
(D) Chief Secretary
Ans : (B)

99. The existence of the Second Chamber (Legislative Council) in the state largely depends on the wishes of the—
(A) People
(B) High Court
(C) Governor
(D) Legislative Assembly
Ans : (D)

100. The Minister-Civil Servant relationship in India emerged as a result of—
(A) Government of India Act, 1935
(B) Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919
(C) Indian Constitution, 1950
(D) Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909
Ans : (B)

101. Village Panchayat is accountable to the—
(A) Panchayat Samiti
(B) Zila Parishad
(C) Chairman of the Village Panchayat
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)

102. Who among the following is known as ‘the father of local selfgovernment’ in India ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Lord Canning
(C) Lord Ripon
(D) Lord Wellesley
Ans : (C)

103. Ashok Mehta Committee recommended for the establishment of—
(A) Nagar Panchayat
(B) Panchayat Samiti
(C) Mandal Panchayat
(D) Gram Panchayat
Ans : (C)

104. The first municipal corporation in India was set-up at Madras in the year—
(A) 1767
(B) 1687
(C) 1667
(D) 1678
Ans : (B)

105. In the Constitution of India, economic and social planning is included in the—
(A) Union List of the VII Schedule
(B) State List of the VII Schedule
(C) Concurrent List of the VII Schedule
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

106. Which among of the following is not considered as part of the Civil Society ?
(A) Non-Government Organisations
(B) Caste associations
(C) Legislature
(D) Family
Ans : (C)

107. Who conceived the concept of Gram Swaraj ?
(A) Jaya Prakash Narain
(B) Vinoba Bhave
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) Swami Dayanand
Ans : (C)

108. State Finance Commission is appointed by a State Government every five year to determine—
(A) Financial resources of the state for placing state’s requirements before the Union Government
(B) Development requirements of the state for formulating State Five Year Plan
(C) Budgetary requirements of various departments of the state government
(D) Pattern of distribution of state’s tax revenue between the state government and local bodies (both rural and urban) and the pattern of grant-in-aid to local bodies
Ans : (D)

109. Reservation of seats for women in Panchayati Raj bodies seeks to ensure—
(A) Economic welfare of women and children
(B) Gender parity in rural society
(C) Participation of women in public life
(D) Empowerment of women as an individual
Ans : (C)

110. Mayor-in-Council form of government means—
(A) Cabinet form of government at the municipal level
(B) Classical prefectorial form of government at the municipal level
(C) Making Mayor unaccountable to his colleagues
(D) Presidential form of government at the municipal level
Ans : (A)

111. According to 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, the minimum age for contesting elections to the Panchayati Raj Institutions should be—
(A) 18 years
(B) 23 years
(C) 21 years
(D) 25 years
Ans : (C)

112. Town Area Committee is constituted and governed by—
(A) District Board
(B) State Legislature
(C) Governor
(D) Municipal Council
Ans : (B)

113. The Lokayukta and Uplokayuktas Act was first passed in—
(A) Maharashtra
(B) West Bengal
(C) Karnataka
(D) Orissa
Ans : (D)

114. Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution relating to the Panchayats contains—
(A) 18 items
(B) 28 items
(C) 19 items
(D) 29 items
Ans : (D)

115. Which one of the following statements is not correct about civil society organisations ?
(A) They are sovereign bodies
(B) They are voluntary but nonprofit-making agencies
(C) They work in close proximity with people
(D) They create awareness; educate and sensitise people on common issues and act as catalysts of social change
Ans : (A)

116. The ‘Recall’ provision to remove the elected office-bearers from the local self-government institution has been executed in—
(A) Bihar
(B) Kerala
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Haryana
Ans : (C)

117. The State Election Commission conducts, controls and supervises municipal elections under—
(A) Article 240(1)
(B) Article 241(2)
(C) Article 243(K)
(D) Article 245(D)
Ans : (C)

118. Which of the following states does not have Panchayati Raj Institution at all ?
(A) Assam
(B) Tripura
(C) Kerala
(D) Nagaland
Ans : (D)

119. Under which of the Article of the Constitution of India did the District Planning Committee come into existence ?
(A) 243 ZD
(B) 243 ZE
(C) 244 ZD
(D) 242 ZD
Ans : (A)

120. Which of the following is not the duty of a District Magistrate ?
(A) Maintenance of Law and Order
(B) Collection of land revenue
(C) Implementation of poverty alleviation programmes
(D) Conduct of local bodies elections
Ans : (D)